The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Recognition Requirements for Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) Regulations 2001

Type Statutory-Instrument
Publication 2001-04-09
Last updated 2026-01-19
State In force
Department King's Printer of Acts of Parliament
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Made: 9th April 2001

Laid before Parliament: 10th April 2001

Coming into force in accordance with regulation 2

The Treasury, in exercise of the powers conferred on them by sections 286(1), 426, 427 and 428(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000[^f00001], and with the approval of the Secretary of State under section 286(2) of that Act, hereby make the following Regulations:

Citation

1

These Regulations may be cited as the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Recognition Requirements for Investment Exchanges , Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories) Regulations 2001.

Commencement

2

These Regulations come into force on the day on which sections 290(1) and 292(2) of the Act (which relate to the making of recognition orders) come into force.

Interpretation

3
  • (1) In these Regulations—
  • “the Act” means the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000;
  • “algorithmic trading” means trading in financial instruments where a computer algorithm automatically determines individual parameters of orders such as whether to initiate the order, the timing, price or quantity of the order or how to manage the order after its submission, with limited or no human intervention, and does not include any system that is only used for the purpose of routing orders to one or more trading venues or for the processing of orders involving no determination of any trading parameters or for the confirmation of orders or the post-trade processing of executed transactions;
  • “the appropriate regulator” has the meaning given in section 285A of the Act;
  • ...
  • ...
  • certificates” has the meaning given in Article 2.1.27 of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • ...
  • commodity derivatives” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(30) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “the Companies Act” means the Companies Act 1989[^f00002];
  • ...
  • ...
  • “default fund” means the sum of the default fund contributions by the members or designated non-members of a recognised investment exchange to that exchange or by one recognised investment exchange to another or by the members of a recognised clearing house to that clearing house or by one recognised clearing house to another to the extent those contributions have not been returned or otherwise applied;
  • “default fund contribution” has the same meaning as in section 188(3A) of the Companies Act;
  • “defaulter” and “default” are to be construed in accordance with sections 188(2) and (2A) of the Companies Act, and references to action taken under the default rules of an exchange or clearing house are to be construed in accordance with section 188(4) of that Act;
  • depositary receipts” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(25) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “derivative” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(29) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “direct electronic access” means an arrangement where a member or participant or client of a trading venue permits a person to use its trading code so the person can electronically transmit orders relating to a financial instrument directly to the trading venue and includes arrangements which involve the use by a person of the infrastructure of the member or participant or client, or any connecting system provided by the member or participant or client, to transmit the orders (direct market access) and arrangements where such an infrastructure is not used by a person (sponsored access);
  • “disorderly trading conditions” has the same meaning as in the markets in financial instruments directive;
  • “emission allowances” has the meaning given in paragraph 11 of Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001;
  • exchange-traded fund” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(26) of the markets in financial instruments regulations;
  • “exempt activities”, in relation to a recognised body, means the regulated activities in respect of which the body is exempt from the general prohibition as a result of any of subsections (2) to (3A) or (3D) of section 285 of the Act;
  • “facilities”, in relation to a recognised body, means the facilities and services it provides in the course of carrying on exempt activities, and references to the use of the facilities of an exchange is to be construed in accordance with paragraph (2);
  • “the FCA” means the Financial Conduct Authority;
  • “financial crime” is to be construed in accordance with section 6(3) and (4) of the Act;
  • “financial instrument” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(9) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “the Financial Services Act” means the Financial Services Act 1986[^f00003];
  • “group” means a parent undertaking and all its subsidiary undertakings, and for those purposes, “parent undertaking” and “subsidiary undertaking” have the same meaning as in section 420 of the Act;
  • “high-frequency algorithmic trading technique” means an algorithmic trading technique characterised by—infrastructure intended to minimise network and other types of latencies, including at least one of the following facilities for algorithmic order entry—co-location;proximity hosting; orhigh-speed direct electronic access;system-determination of order initiation, generation, routing or execution without human intervention for individual trades or orders; andhigh message intraday rates (see regulation 3A) which constitute orders, quotes or cancellations;
  • “investments” means investments of a kind specified for the purposes of section 22 of the Act;
  • “liquid market” means a market for a financial instrument or a class of financial instruments, where there are ready and willing buyers and sellers on a continuous basis, assessed in accordance with the following criteria, taking into consideration the specific market structures of the particular financial instrument or of the particular class of financial instrument—the average frequency and size of transactions over a range of market conditions, having regard to the nature and cycle of products within the class of financial instrument;the number and type of market participants, including the ratio of market participants to traded instruments in a particular product;the average size of spreads, where available;
  • management body” in relation to an exchange means— the board of directors, or if there is no such board, the equivalent body responsible for the management of the exchange; andany other person who effectively directs the business of the exchange;
  • “market contract” has the meaning given in section 286(4) of the Act (with reference, in the case of a recognised investment exchange, to section 155(2) of the Companies Act or article 80(2) of the Northern Ireland Order, or in the case of a recognised clearing house, to section 155(3) of the Companies Act or article 80(3) of the Northern Ireland Order) and references to a party to a market contract are to be construed in accordance with section 187 of the Companies Act;
  • “market operator” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(10) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “matched principal trading” means a transaction where the facilitator interposes itself between the buyer and the seller to the transaction in such a way that it is never exposed to market risk throughout the execution of the transaction, with both sides executed simultaneously, and where the transaction is concluded at a price where the facilitator makes no profit or loss, other than a previously disclosed commission, fee or charge for the transaction;
  • multilateral system” has the meaning given as in Article 2(1)(11) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “multilateral trading facility” means a UK multilateral trading facility within the meaning given in Article 2(1)(14A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “the Northern Ireland Order” means the Companies (No. 2) (Northern Ireland) Order 1990[^f00004]; and
  • “organised trading facility” means a UK organised trading facility within the meaning given in Article 2(1)(15A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “qualifying credit institution” has the meaning given in section 417 of the Act, and for the purposes of that definition, “Part 4A permission” and “the regulated activity of accepting deposits” have the same meaning as in the Act;
  • “regulated market” means a UK regulated market within the meaning of Article 2(1)(13A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “regulatory functions”, in relation to a recognised body, has the meaning given in section 291(3) of the Act.
  • “senior management” means natural persons who exercise executive functions within an investment firm, a market operator or a data reporting services provider and who are responsible, and accountable to the management body, for the day-to-day management of the entity, including for the implementation of the policies concerning the distribution of services and products to clients by the firm and its personnel;
  • “settlement” has the same meaning as in the markets in financial instruments directive;
  • “SME growth market” means a multilateral trading facility that is registered as an SME growth market in accordance with Part 5.10 of the Market Conduct sourcebook;
  • sovereign debt” has the meaning given by Article 2(1)(46) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • structured finance products” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(28) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • systematic internaliser” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(12) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • third country firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(42) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • “transferable securities” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(24) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
  • ...
  • (1A) In Part 1 of the Schedule, in paragraph 21A in Part 3 of the Schedule and in paragraph 31 in Part 5 of the Schedule, “clearing” has the same meaning as in the markets in financial instruments directive.
  • (1B) Any reference in these Regulations to a sourcebook is to a sourcebook in the Handbook of Rules and Guidance published by the FCA containing rules made by the FCA under the 2000 Act as the sourcebook has effect on IP completion day.
  • (2) In these Regulations, references to dealings on an exchange, or transactions effected on an exchange, are references to dealings or transactions which are effected by means of the exchange’s facilities or which are governed by the rules of the exchange, and references to the use of the facilities of an exchange include use which consists of any such dealings or entering into any such transactions.
  • (3) In these Regulations, except in regulation 6, references to the performance of the functions of a recognised body are references to the carrying on by it of exempt activities together with the performance of its regulatory functions.
  • (4) For the purposes of the definition of “algorithmic trading” in paragraph (1), a system is to be considered as having limited or no human intervention where, for any order or quote generation process or any process to optimise order-execution, an automated system makes decisions at any of the stages of initiating, generating, routing or executing orders or quotes according to pre-determined parameters.
  • (5) For the purposes of the definition of “direct electronic access” in paragraph (1), a person is to be considered not capable of electronically transmitting orders relating to a financial instrument directly to a trading venue where either or both of the following apply—
  • (a) that person cannot exercise discretion regarding—
  • (i) the exact fraction of a second of order entry, and
  • (ii) the lifetime of the order within that timeframe;
  • (b) the electronic transmission of orders takes place through arrangements for optimisation of order execution processes that determine the parameters of the order other than the trading venue where the order should be submitted, unless these arrangements are embedded into that person’s systems and not into those of—
  • (i) the member or participant of a regulated market or of a multilateral trading facility, or
  • (ii) a client of an organised trading facility.

Recognition requirements for investment exchanges

4

Parts I and II of the Schedule set out recognition requirements applying to bodies in respect of which a recognition order has been made under section 290(1)(a) of the Act, or which have applied for such an order under section 287 of the Act.

Recognition requirements for clearing houses which are not central counterparties

5

Parts III and IV of the Schedule set out recognition requirements applying to bodies in respect of which a recognition order has been made under section 290(1)(c) of the Act, or which have applied for such an order under section 288(1A) of the Act.

Method of satisfying recognition requirements

6
  • (1) In considering whether a recognised body or applicant satisfies recognition requirements applying to it under these Regulations, the appropriate regulator may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions and practices within the meaning of section 302(1) of the Act.
  • (2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a recognised body or applicant may satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these Regulations by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any other person.
  • (3) Where a recognised body or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the recognised body or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these Regulations, but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the recognised body or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them.
  • (4) This regulation does not apply in respect of a recognised CSD or an applicant for an order under section 288A of the Act.

Dealings and transactions not involving investments

7

Nothing in these Regulations is to be construed as requiring a recognised investment exchange to limit dealings on the exchange to dealings in investments, or as requiring a ... recognised clearing house to limit the provision of its clearing services to clearing services in respect of transactions in investments.

Exchanges and clearing houses which do not enter into market contracts

8

Nothing in Parts II or IV of the Schedule is to be taken as requiring a recognised investment exchange or recognised clearing house which does not enter into such contracts as are mentioned in section 155(2)(b) or (3) of the Companies Act to have default rules, or to make any arrangements, relating to such contracts.

Effect of recognition under the Financial Services Act 1986

9
  • (1) In this regulation, “commencement” means the beginning of the day on which subsections (2) and (3) of section 285 of the Act (exemption from the general prohibition for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses) come into force.
  • (2) Subject to paragraph (3), an order under section 37(3) of the Financial Services Act which was in force immediately before commencement has effect after commencement as if it were a recognition order made under section 290(1)(a) of the Act following an application under section 287 of the Act, declaring the body or association to which it relates to be a recognised investment exchange.
  • (3) But if the order was made by virtue of section 40(2) of the Financial Services Act (recognition requirements for overseas investment exchanges and clearing houses), it has effect as if it were a recognition order made under section 292(2)(a) of the Act.
  • (4) Subject to paragraph (5), an order under section 39(3) of the Financial Services Act which was in force immediately before commencement has effect after commencement as if it were a recognition order made under section 290(1)(b) of the Act following an application under section 288 of the Act, declaring the body or association to which it relates to be a recognised clearing house.
  • (5) But if the order was made by virtue of section 40(2) of the Financial Services Act (recognition requirements for overseas investment exchanges and clearing houses), it has effect as if it were a recognition order made under section 292(2)(b) of the Act.
  • (6) Where a recognition order has effect by virtue of this regulation, the Authority may not give a notice under section 298(1)(a) of the Act, giving notice of its intention to give a direction under section 296 or to make a revocation order under section 297(2) in relation to the recognised body concerned, earlier than one month after commencement.
  • (7) Paragraph (6) is without prejudice to section 298(7) of the Act (which permits the Authority to give a direction under section 296 of the Act without following the procedure set out in section 298, if the Authority considers it essential to do so), or to the continued effect of any notice which has effect as a notice given under section 298(1)(a) of the Act by virtue of regulation 10(4) below.

Revocation of recognition: action taken before commencement

10
  • (1) In this regulation—
  • (a) “commencement” has the same meaning as in regulation 9 above, and
  • (b) “relevant person” means—
  • (i) in relation to action taken in respect of a body or association of the kind described in section 40(1) of the Financial Services Act[^f00005] (overseas investment exchanges and clearing houses), the Treasury, or
  • (ii) in any other case, the Authority.
  • (2) This regulation applies to action taken by a relevant person before commencement pursuant to section 37(7) or 39(7) of the Financial Services Act[^f00006] (which relate to revocation of recognition orders under that Act), or pursuant to subsections (2) to (9) of section 11 of that Act as they had effect by virtue of section 37(7) or 39(7).
  • (3) Paragraphs (4) to (8) apply where a relevant person has given notice to a body or association under section 11(3) of the Financial Services Act of its intention to revoke a recognition order made under that Act in relation to that body or association, but has not notified the body or association of its determination whether to proceed to revoke that recognition order.
  • (4) The notice has effect after commencement as if it were a notice given by the Authority under section 298(1)(a) of the Act, giving notice of the Authority’s intention to revoke the recognition order which is treated as having effect in relation to the body or association by virtue of regulation 9 above.
  • (5) If before commencement the relevant person has complied with—
  • (a) the requirement in subsection (3) of section 11 of the Financial Services Act to bring the notice to the attention of members of the body or association in question, or
  • (b) the requirement in that subsection to publish the notice to other persons likely to be affected,

the Authority is to be treated as having complied with the equivalent requirement in section 298(1)(b) or (as the case may be) (c) of the Act, in relation to the notice under section 298(1)(a) which has effect by virtue of paragraph (4).

  • (6) Nothing in paragraph (4) or in the Act is to be treated as changing the length or affecting the continuity of the period within which, in accordance with the notice as originally given, representations might be made by any person to the relevant person pursuant to section 11(5) of the Financial Services Act, but any such representations are to be considered by the Authority as if they were representations made to it pursuant to section 298(3) of the Act.
  • (7) For the purposes of the Authority’s consideration whether to proceed to exercise the power to make a revocation order under subsection (2) of section 297 of the Act (but without prejudice to any exercise by the Authority of that power where it has given a new notice under section 298(1)(a) after commencement), that subsection is to be read as if the reference in paragraph (a) to recognition requirements were a reference to recognition requirements other than new recognition requirements, and as if the reference in paragraph (b) to obligations were a reference to obligations other than new obligations.
  • (8) A recognition requirement or obligation is to be treated as a new recognition requirement or obligation if its effect is not substantially the same as the effect of a requirement or obligation of the kind mentioned (or having effect as if mentioned) in section 37(7) (in the case of an investment exchange) or 39(7) (in the case of a clearing house) of the Financial Services Act (as those provisions had effect immediately before commencement).
  • (9) Paragraph (10) applies where a relevant person has made an order (“the revoking order”) under section 37(7) or 39(7) of the Financial Services Act, revoking a recognition order made in relation to a body or association under that Act, but either—
  • (a) the revoking order has not taken effect in accordance with section 11(2) of the Financial Services Act, or
  • (b) the revoking order has taken effect but contains transitional provisions pursuant to section 11(7) of the Financial Services Act which continued to have effect immediately before commencement.
  • (10) The revoking order has effect after commencement as if it were a revocation order made by the Authority under section 297 of the Act, revoking (with effect from the date specified in the revoking order) the recognition order which is treated as having effect in relation to the body or association by virtue of regulation 9 above, and as if any such transitional provisions were included in the revocation order by virtue of section 297(5) of the Act.

SCHEDULE

PART I — Recognition requirements for investment exchanges

Financial resources

1
  • (1) The exchange must have financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its functions as a recognised investment exchange.
  • (2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the FCA must (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the exchange’s connection with any person, and any activity carried on by the exchange, whether or not it is an exempt activity.

Suitability

2
  • (1) The exchange must be a fit and proper person to perform the functions of a recognised investment exchange.
  • (2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the FCA may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the exchange’s connection with any person.
  • (3) The members of the management body must be of sufficiently good repute and possess sufficient knowledge, skills and experience to perform their duties.
  • (4) The persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the exchange, whether directly or indirectly, must be suitable.

Systems and controls

3
  • (1) The exchange must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements, used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.
  • (2) Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning—
  • (a) the transmission of information;
  • (b) the assessment , mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the exchange’s functions;
  • (c) the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the exchange;
  • (ca) the technical operation of the exchange, including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;
  • (d) the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d) below; ...
  • (e) (where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the exchange’s facilities;
  • (f) the resilience of its trading systems;
  • (g) the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;
  • (h) the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;
  • (i) the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the exchange's services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the exchange's systems and controls;
  • (j) the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;
  • (k) the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the exchange;
  • (l) the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the exchange's trading system by a member or participant, are capable of being managed;
  • (m) the ability to ensure the flow of orders is capable of being slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;
  • (n) the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and
  • (o) the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.
  • (3) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (2)(c), the exchange must—
  • (a) establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by their members or participants with its rules; and
  • (b) monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behaviour that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.
  • (4) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the exchange must provide environments to facilitate such testing.
  • (5) The exchange must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.

Safeguards for investors

4
  • (1) The exchange must ensure that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner and so as to afford proper protection to investors.
  • (2) Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph (1), the exchange must ensure that—
  • (a) access to the exchange’s facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors and is in accordance with paragraph 7B;
  • (aa) it has transparent ... rules and procedures—
  • (i) to provide for fair and orderly trading, and
  • (ii) to establish objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders;
  • (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  • (c) appropriate arrangements are made for relevant information to be made available (whether by the exchange or, where appropriate, by issuers of the investments) to persons engaged in dealing in investments on the exchange;
  • (d) satisfactory arrangements , which comply with paragraph 7D, are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise) of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on the exchange (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions);
  • (e) satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the exchange, and transactions (whether or not effected on the exchange) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of its facilities;
  • (ea) appropriate arrangements are made to—
  • (i) identify conflicts between the interests of the exchange, its owners and operators and the interests of the persons who make use of its facilities or the interests of the trading venues operated by it, and
  • (ii) manage such conflicts so as to avoid adverse consequences for the operation of the trading venues operated by the exchange and for the persons who make use of its facilities;
  • (f) appropriate measures ... are adopted to reduce the extent to which the exchange’s facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence; ...
  • (fa) it immediately reports to the FCA any significant breaches of its rules or disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behaviour which is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument; and
  • (g) where the exchange’s facilities include making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of those facilities, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose.
  • (3) In sub-paragraph (2)(c), “relevant information” means information which is relevant in determining the current value of the investments.

Disclosure by issuers of securities

5

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Promotion and maintenance of standards

6
  • (1) The exchange must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the exchange.
  • (2) The exchange must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the FCA, with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act.

Rules and consultation

7
  • (1) The exchange must ensure that appropriate procedures are adopted for it to make rules, for keeping its rules under review and for amending them.
  • (2) The procedures must include procedures for consulting users of the exchange’s facilities in appropriate cases.
  • (3) The exchange must consult users of its facilities on any arrangements it proposes to make for dealing with penalty income in accordance with paragraph 8(3) below (or on any changes which it proposes to make to those arrangements).

Discipline

8
  • (1) The exchange must have—
  • (a) effective arrangements (which include the monitoring of transactions effected on the exchange) for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules, including rules in relation to the provision of clearing services in respect of transactions other than transactions effected on the exchange;
  • (b) effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with the arrangements made by it as mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and
  • (c) effective arrangements for monitoring transactions effected on the exchange in order to identify disorderly trading conditions.
  • (2) Arrangements made pursuant to sub-paragraph (1) must include procedures for—
  • (a) investigating complaints made to the exchange about the conduct of persons in the course of using the exchange’s facilities; and
  • (b) the fair, independent and impartial resolution of appeals against decisions of the exchange.
  • (3) Where arrangements made pursuant to sub-paragraph (1) include provision for requiring the payment of financial penalties, they must include arrangements for ensuring that any amount so paid is applied only in one or more of the following ways—
  • (a) towards meeting expenses incurred by the exchange in the course of the investigation of the breach in respect of which the penalty is paid, or in the course of any appeal against the decision of the exchange in relation to that breach;
  • (b) for the benefit of users of the exchange’s facilities;
  • (c) for charitable purposes.

Complaints

9
  • (1) The exchange must have effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions.
  • (2) But sub-paragraph (1) does not extend to—
  • (a) complaints about the content of rules made by the exchange, or
  • (b) complaints about a decision against which the complainant has the right to appeal under procedures of the kind mentioned in paragraph 8(2)(b) above.
  • (3) The arrangements must include arrangements for a complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by a person independent of the exchange, and for him to report on the result of his investigation to the exchange and to the complainant.
  • (4) The arrangements must confer on the person mentioned in sub-paragraph (3) the power to recommend, if he thinks it appropriate, that the exchange—
  • (a) makes a compensatory payment to the complainant,
  • (b) remedies the matter complained of,

or takes both of those steps.

  • (5) Sub-paragraph (3) is not to be taken as preventing the exchange from making arrangements for the initial investigation of a complaint to be conducted by the exchange.
  • (6) The exchange must have in place effective procedures for its employees to report potential or actual infringements of—
  • (a) these Regulations,
  • (b) provisions of the Act and subordinate legislation made under the Act (including rules) transposing the markets in financial instruments directive,
  • (c) the markets in financial instruments regulation, ...
  • (d) any EU regulation originally made under the markets in financial instruments directive or the markets in financial instruments regulation which is assimilated direct legislation; and
  • (e) any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under the markets in financial instruments regulation on or after IP completion day,

internally through a specific, independent and autonomous channel.

PART II — Recognition requirements for investment exchanges: default rules in respect of market contracts

Default rules in respect of market contracts

10
  • (1) The exchange must have default rules which, in the event of a member of the exchange being or appearing to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts, enable action to be taken in respect of unsettled market contracts to which he is a party.
  • (2) The rules may authorise the taking of the same or similar action in relation to a member who appears to be likely to become unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts.
  • (3) The rules must enable action to be taken in respect of all unsettled market contracts, other than those entered into ... for the purposes of or in connection with the provision of clearing services for the exchange.
  • (4) Sub-paragraph (5) applies where the exchange has arrangements for transacting business with, or in relation to common members of, a recognised clearing house , a recognised CSD or another recognised investment exchange.
  • (5) A recognised investment exchange must have default rules which in the event of the clearing house , the central securities depository or the investment exchange being or appearing to be unable to meet its obligations in respect of one or more market contracts, enable action to be taken in respect of unsettled market contracts to which that person is a party.

Content of rules

11
  • (1) This paragraph applies as regards contracts falling within section 155(2)(a) of the Companies Act.
  • (2) The rules mentioned in paragraph 10 must provide—
  • (a) for all rights and liabilities between those party as principal to unsettled market contracts to which the defaulter is party as principal to be discharged and for there to be paid by one party to the other such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the rules;
  • (b) for the sums so payable in respect of different contracts between the same parties to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum; and
  • (c) for the certification by or on behalf of the exchange of the net sum payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.
  • (3) The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to rights and liabilities between those party as principal to unsettled market contracts does not include rights and liabilities—
  • (a) in respect of margin; or
  • (b) arising out of a failure to perform a market contract.
  • (4) The rules may make the same or similar provision, in relation to non-members designated in accordance with the procedures mentioned in sub-paragraph (5), as in relation to members of the exchange.
  • (5) If such provision is made as is mentioned in sub-paragraph (4), the exchange must have adequate procedures—
  • (a) for designating the persons, or descriptions of person, in respect of whom action may be taken;
  • (b) for keeping under review the question which persons or descriptions of person should be or remain so designated; and
  • (c) for withdrawing such designation.
  • (6) The procedures must be designed to secure that—
  • (a) a person is not, or does not remain, designated if failure by him to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts would be unlikely adversely to affect the operation of the market; and
  • (b) a description of persons is not, or does not remain, designated if failure by a person of that description to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts would be unlikely adversely to affect the operation of the market.
  • (7) The exchange must have adequate arrangements—
  • (a) for bringing a designation or withdrawal of designation to the attention of the person or description of persons concerned; and
  • (b) where a description of persons is designated, or the designation of a description of persons is withdrawn, for ascertaining which persons fall within that description.
12
  • (1) This paragraph applies as regards contracts falling within section 155(2)(b) or (c) of the Companies Act.
  • (2) The rules mentioned in paragraph 10 must provide—
  • (a) for all rights and liabilities of the defaulter under or in respect of unsettled market contracts to be discharged and for there to be paid by or to the defaulter such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the rules;
  • (b) for the sums so payable by or to the defaulter in respect of different contracts entered into by the defaulter in one capacity for the purposes of section 187 of the Companies Act to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum;
  • (bb) if relevant, for that sum to be aggregated with, or set off against, any sum owed by or to the investment exchange by or to AP under an indemnity given or reimbursement or similar obligation in respect of a margin set off agreement in which the defaulter chose to participate so as to produce a net sum;
  • (c) for the net sum referred to in paragraph (b) or, if relevant, the net sum referred to in paragraph (bb)—
  • (i) if payable by the defaulter to the exchange, to be set off against—
  • (aa) any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property);
  • (bb) to the extent (if any) that any sum remains after set off under paragraph (aa), any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter remaining after any application of such contribution;
  • (ii) to the extent (if any) that any sum remains after set off under paragraph (i), to be paid from such other funds, including the default fund, or resources as the exchange may apply under its default rules;
  • (iii) if payable by the exchange to the defaulter, to be aggregated with—
  • (aa) any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property);
  • (bb) any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter remaining after any application of such contribution;
  • (d) for the certification by or on behalf of the exchange of the sum finally payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.
  • (2A) In sub-paragraph (2), “margin set off agreement” means an agreement between the exchange and AP permitting any eligible position to which the Participant Member is party with the exchange and any eligible position to which the Participant Member is party with AP to be taken into account in calculating a net sum owed by or to the Participant Member to either the exchange or AP and/or margin to be provided to, either or both, the exchange and AP.
  • (2B) In sub-paragraph (2)—
  • “AP” means a recognised clearing house or another recognised investment exchange of whom a Participant Member is a member;
  • “eligible position” means any position which may be included in the set off calculation;
  • “Participant Member” means a person who—is a member of the exchange;is a member or participant of AP; andchooses to participate, in accordance with the rules of the exchange, in such agreement.
  • (2C) The property, contribution, funds or resources referred to in paragraph (2)(c), against which the net sum is to be set off (or with which it is to be aggregated) are subject to any unsatisfied claims arising out of the default of a defaulter before the default in relation to which the calculation is being made.
  • (3) The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettled market contract includes (without prejudice to the generality of that provision) rights and liabilities arising in consequence of action taken under provisions of the rules authorising—
  • (a) the effecting by the exchange of corresponding contracts in relation to unsettled market contracts to which the defaulter is party;
  • (b) the transfer of the defaulter’s position under an unsettled market contract to another member of the exchange;
  • (c) the exercise by the exchange of any option granted by an unsettled market contract.
  • (4) A “corresponding contract” means a contract on the same terms (except as to price or premium) as the market contract but under which the person who is the buyer under the market contract agrees to sell and the person who is the seller under the market contract agrees to buy.
  • (5) Sub-paragraph (4) applies with any necessary modifications in relation to a market contract which is not an agreement to sell.
  • (6) The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettled market contract does not include, where he acts as agent, rights or liabilities of his arising out of the relationship of principal and agent.

Notification to other parties affected

13

The exchange must have adequate arrangements for ensuring that—

  • (a) in the case of unsettled market contracts with a defaulter acting as principal, parties to the contract are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of any decision taken under the rules in relation to contracts to which they are a party; and
  • (b) in the case of unsettled market contracts with a defaulter acting as agent, parties to the contract and the defaulter’s principals are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of the identity of the other parties to the contract.

Cooperation with other authorities

14

The exchange must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the Secretary of State, any relevant office-holder within the meaning of section 189 of the Companies Act, and any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of a member of the exchange or any non-member designated in accordance with the procedures mentioned in paragraph 11(5) above or the default of a recognised clearing house , a recognised CSD or another recognised investment exchange.

Margin

15

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

PART III — Recognition requirements for clearing houses

Financial resources

16
  • (1) The clearing house must have financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its functions as a recognised clearing house.
  • (2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the Bank of England may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the clearing house’s connection with any person, and any activity carried on by the clearing house, whether or not it is an exempt activity.

Suitability

17
  • (1) The clearing house must be a fit and proper person to perform the functions of a recognised clearing house.
  • (2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the Bank of England may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the clearing house’s connection with any person.

Systems and controls

18
  • (1) The clearing house must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its functions are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.
  • (2) This requirement applies in particular to systems and controls concerning—
  • (a) the transmission of information;
  • (b) the assessment and management of risks to the performance of the clearing house’s functions;
  • (c) the operation of the matters mentioned in paragraph 19(2)(b) below; and
  • (d) (where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the clearing house’s facilities.

Safeguards for investors

19
  • (1) The clearing house must ensure that its facilities are such as to afford proper protection to investors.
  • (2) Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph (1), the clearing house must ensure that—
  • (a) access to the clearing house’s facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of those facilities and the interests of investors;
  • (b) its clearing services involve satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise) of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions in respect of which it provides such services (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions);
  • (c) satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions which are cleared or to be cleared by means of its facilities;
  • (d) appropriate measures are adopted to reduce the extent to which the clearing house’s facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence; and
  • (e) where the clearing house’s facilities include making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of those facilities, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose.

Promotion and maintenance of standards

20
  • (1) The clearing house must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the clearing house.
  • (2) The clearing house must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the Bank of England, with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act.

Rules

21
  • (1) The clearing house must ensure that appropriate procedures are adopted for it to make rules, for keeping its rules under review and for amending them.
  • (2) The procedures must include procedures for consulting users of the clearing house’s facilities in appropriate cases.
  • (3) The clearing house must consult users of its facilities on any arrangements it proposes to make for dealing with penalty income in accordance with paragraph 22(3) below (or on any changes which it proposes to make to those arrangements).

Discipline

22
  • (1) The clearing house must have effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules.
  • (2) The arrangements must include procedures for—
  • (a) investigating complaints made to the clearing house about the conduct of persons in the course of using the clearing house’s facilities; and
  • (b) the fair, independent and impartial resolution of appeals against decisions of the clearing house.
  • (3) Where the arrangements include provision for requiring the payment of financial penalties, they must include arrangements for ensuring that any amount so paid is applied only in one or more of the following ways—
  • (a) towards meeting expenses incurred by the clearing house in the course of the investigation of the breach in respect of which the penalty is paid, or in the course of any appeal against the decision of the clearing house in relation to that breach;
  • (b) for the benefit of users of the clearing house’s facilities;
  • (c) for charitable purposes.

Complaints

23
  • (1) The clearing house must have effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions.
  • (2) But sub-paragraph (1) does not extend to—
  • (a) complaints about the content of rules made by the clearing house, or
  • (b) complaints about a decision against which the complainant has the right to appeal under procedures of the kind mentioned in paragraph 22(2)(b) above.
  • (3) The arrangements must include arrangements for a complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by a person independent of the clearing house, and for him to report on the result of his investigation to the clearing house and to the complainant.
  • (4) The arrangements must confer on the person mentioned in sub-paragraph (3) the power to recommend, if he thinks it appropriate, that the clearing house—
  • (a) makes a compensatory payment to the complainant,
  • (b) remedies the matter complained of,

or takes both of those steps.

  • (5) Sub-paragraph (3) is not to be taken as preventing the clearing house from making arrangements for the initial investigation of a complaint to be conducted by the clearing house.

PART IV — Recognition requirements applying to clearing houses: default rules in respect of market contracts

Default rules in respect of market contracts

24
  • (1) The clearing house must have default rules which, in the event of a member of the clearing house being or appearing to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts, enable action to be taken to close out his position in relation to all unsettled market contracts to which he is a party.
  • (2) The rules may authorise the taking of the same or similar action where a member appears to be likely to become unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts.
  • (3) Sub-paragraph (4) applies where the clearing house has arrangements for transacting business with, or in relation to common members of, a recognised investment exchange , a recognised CSD or another recognised clearing house.
  • (4) A recognised clearing house must have default rules which in the event of the investment exchange , the central securities depository or the clearing house being or appearing to be unable to meet its obligations in respect of one or more market contracts, enable action to be taken in respect of unsettled market contracts to which that person is a party.

Content of rules

25
  • (1) The rules must provide—
  • (a) for all rights and liabilities of the defaulter under or in respect of unsettled market contracts to be discharged and for there to be paid by or to the defaulter such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the rules;
  • (b) for the sums so payable by or to the defaulter in respect of different contracts entered into by the defaulter in one capacity for the purposes of section 187 of the Companies Act to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum;
  • (bb) if relevant, for that sum to be aggregated with, or set off against, any sum owed by or to the clearing house by or to AP under an indemnity given or reimbursement or similar obligation in respect of a margin set off agreement in which the defaulter chose to participate so as to produce a net sum.
  • (c) for the net sum referred to in paragraph (b) or, if relevant, the net sum referred to in paragraph (bb)—
  • (i) if payable by the defaulter to the clearing house, to be set off against—
  • (aa) any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property);
  • (bb) to the extent (if any) that any sum remains after set off under paragraph (aa), any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter remaining after any application of such contribution;
  • (ii) to the extent (if any) that any sum remains after set off under paragraph (i), to be paid from such other funds, including the default fund, or resources as the clearing house may apply under its default rules;
  • (iii) if payable by the clearing house to the defaulter, to be aggregated with—
  • (aa) any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property);
  • (bb) any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter remaining after any application of such contribution; and
  • (d) for the certification by or on behalf of the clearing house of the sum finally payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.
  • (1A) In sub-paragraph (1), “margin set off agreement” means an agreement between the clearing house and AP permitting any eligible position to which the Participant Member is party with the clearing house and any eligible position to which the Participant Member is party with AP to be taken into account in calculating a net sum owed by or to the Participant Member to or by either the clearing house or AP and/or margin to be provided to, either or both, the clearing house and AP.
  • (1B) In sub-paragraph (1A)—
  • “AP” means a recognised investment exchange or another recognised clearing house of whom a Participant Member is a member;
  • “eligible position” means any position which may be included in the set off calculation;
  • “Participant Member” means a person who—is a member of the clearing house;is a member or participant of AP; andchooses to participate, in accordance with the rules of the clearing house, in such agreement.
  • (1C) The property, contribution, funds or resources referred to in paragraph (1)(c), against which the net sum is to be set off (or with which it is to be aggregated) are subject to any unsatisfied claims arising out of the default of a defaulter before the default in relation to which the calculation is being made.
  • (2) The reference in sub-paragraph (1) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettled market contract includes (without prejudice to the generality of that provision) rights and liabilities arising in consequence of action taken under provisions of the rules authorising—
  • (a) the effecting by the clearing house of corresponding contracts in relation to unsettled market contracts to which the defaulter is party;
  • (b) the transfer of the defaulter’s position under an unsettled market contract to another member of the clearing house;
  • (c) the exercise by the clearing house of any option granted by an unsettled market contract.
  • (3) A “corresponding contract” means a contract on the same terms (except as to price or premium) as the market contract but under which the person who is the buyer under the market contract agrees to sell and the person who is the seller under the market contract agrees to buy.
  • (4) Sub-paragraph (3) applies with any necessary modifications in relation to a market contract which is not an agreement to sell.
  • (5) The reference in sub-paragraph (1) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettled market contract does not include, where he acts as agent, rights or liabilities of his arising out of the relationship of principal and agent.

Notification to other parties affected

26

The clearing house must have adequate arrangements for ensuring that parties to unsettled market contracts with a defaulter are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of any decision taken under the rules in relation to contracts to which they are a party.

Cooperation with other authorities

27

The clearing house must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the Secretary of State, any relevant office-holder within the meaning of section 189 of the Companies Act, and any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of or connected with the default of a member of the clearing house or the default of a recognised investment exchange , a recognised CSD or another recognised clearing house.

Margin

28
  • (1) The rules of the clearing house must provide that in the event of a default, margin provided by the defaulter for his own account is not to be applied to meet a shortfall on a client account other than a client account of the defaulter.
  • (2) This paragraph is without prejudice to the requirements of any rules relating to clients' money made by the FCA under sections 137A and 137B of the Act.
  • (3) For the purposes of this paragraph, “client account of the defaulter” means an account held by the clearing house in the name of the defaulter in which relevant transactions effected by the defaulter have been recorded.
  • (4) In sub-paragraph (3) “relevant transaction” has the same meaning as in regulation 16(1) of the Financial Markets and Insolvency Regulations 1991.

Signed

David Clelland — Clive Betts — Two of the Lords Commissioners of Her Majesty’s Treasury — 15th March 2001

Approved,

Kim Howells — Parliamentary Under Secretary of State for Consumers and Corporate Affairs, — Department of Trade and Industry — 9th April 2001

Explanatory note

(This note is not part of the Regulations)

These Regulations set out the recognition requirements which investment exchanges and clearing houses must satisfy in order to be or remain recognised by the Financial Services Authority under section 290 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) (“the Act”). Recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses have an exemption under section 285(2) of the Act, permitting them to carry on certain activities which would otherwise require authorisation by the Authority under Part IV of the Act.

The recognition requirements are listed in the Schedule to the Regulations, which applies in accordance with regulations 4 and 5. Regulation 6 indicates that in assessing compliance with the requirements the Financial Services Authority may take account, for example, of the body’s constitution and practices, as well as its rules, guidance, and the arrangements which it makes for the provision of clearing services (see the definition of “regulatory provisions” in section 302(1) of the Act). Regulation 6 also permits a body to satisfy the requirements by delegating the performance of a function to another person, provided that person is fit and proper.

Part I of the Schedule sets out various requirements applying to investment exchanges, covering matters such as the sufficiency of its financial resources, the protection afforded to investors, and its willingness to maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing. Part III of the Schedule sets out a similar range of requirements for clearing houses. Some requirements in Part I refer to “investments”, which is defined in regulation 3(1) by reference to section 22 of the Act. At the time these Regulations were made, the investments specified for the purposes of that section were contained in Part III of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/544).

Parts II and IV of the Schedule set out requirements formerly contained in Parts I and II of Schedule 21 of the Companies Act 1989 (c. 40) (“the Companies Act”). These provisions require recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses to have default rules applying where a person defaults on obligations under a market contract. “Market contract” (see regulation 1) is defined in section 286 of the Act as a contract to which Part VII of the Companies Act (or Part V of the Companies (No. 2) (Northern Ireland) Order 1990 (S.I. 1990/1504, N.I. 10)) applies. However under regulation 8 (which replaces section 156(3A) of the Companies Act) a recognised investment exchange or recognised clearing house is not required to have default rules relating to particular types of market contract if it does not enter into any such contracts. “Market contract” also includes any other categories of contract prescribed by the Treasury under section 286 of the Act, but no such additional categories are currently prescribed.

Regulations 9 and 10 contain transitional provisions. Regulation 9 ensures that investment exchanges and clearing houses which were recognised under the Financial Services Act 1986 (c. 60) continue to be recognised under the Act. Regulation 10 ensures that any action taken with a view to the revocation of such recognition under the Financial Services Act can be continued. However regulations 9(6) and 10(7) contain safeguards to ensure that recognised bodies have sufficient time to comply with new requirements which did not previously apply to them.

Footnotes

[^f00001]: 2000 c. 8.

[^f00002]: 1989 c. 40.

[^f00003]: 1986 c. 60.

[^f00004]: S.I. 1990/1504 (N.I. 10).

[^f00005]: The functions of the Secretary of State under sections 37, 39 and 40 of the Financial Services Act were transferred to the Financial Services Authority (previously known as the Securities and Investments Board Limited) by S.I. 1987/942, except in relation to bodies or associations of the kind described in section 40(1) of the Financial Services Act 1986 (overseas investment exchanges and clearing houses). In relation to such bodies, these functions of the Secretary of State were transferred to the Treasury by S.I. 1992/1315.

[^f00006]: The effect of sections 37(7) and 39(7) of the Financial Services Act is modified by section 40(4)(b) of that Act (in relation to overseas investment exchanges and clearing houses), and section 156 of the Companies Act (in all cases).

Editorial notes

[^key-02a099e8e481c0e76f483f838e46348b]: Sch. para. 9(6)(d)(e) substituted for Sch. para. 9(6)(d) (31.12.2020) by The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(10)(b) (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 37(g)(ii) and with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-03d7b91c8067d1f061aba5f81591ae93]: Sch. para. 9A and cross-heading inserted (1.11.2007) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Recognition Requirements for Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) (Amendment) Regulations 2006 (S.I. 2006/3386), regs. 1, 11

[^key-03ded013d40e4fda2a9d59bf9027418a]: Words in Sch. para. 9F(11) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(16)(d)(ii) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-041e521566ce3a8a4b52d5588e6bd6bb]: Words in reg. 3(1) inserted (1.11.2007) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Recognition Requirements for Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) (Amendment) Regulations 2006 (S.I. 2006/3386), regs. 1, 3

[^key-04436f73d95896ec7cd462d4fa20bff9]: Words in reg. 3(1) inserted (15.6.2009) by The Financial Markets and Insolvency Regulations 2009 (S.I. 2009/853), regs. 1(1), 4(2)

[^key-072a1cd06c4e67f3b352f4aea43a6e22]: Words in reg. 3(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 19(2)(q) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-07a31d1d1393f0a7ad7a44b2df5df0de]: Words in Sch. para. 9E(1) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(15)(b) (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 37(g)(v) and with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-07d9a3c6b1196738552248030ea84a24]: Sch. para. 8 in force at 1.12.2001, see reg. 2

[^key-083837d106eee0dee8d050d13380f778]: Sch. paras. 9A(4)(5) inserted (29.6.2017 for specified purposes, 3.7.2017 for specified purposes, 31.7.2017 for specified purposes, 3.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/701), reg. 1(2)(3)(4)(6), Sch. 3 para. 1(16)(d) (with reg. 7)

[^key-09d9781aff996c3346270af08f1320c6]: Words in Sch. para. 24(3) inserted (28.11.2017) by The Central Securities Depositories Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/1064), regs. 1, 4(6)(c)(i)(aa) (with regs. 7(4), 9(1))

[^key-0de06ea0ecb07b172b0fa1456f6f69b6]: Sch. para. 25(1A)-(1C) inserted (15.6.2009) by The Financial Markets and Insolvency Regulations 2009 (S.I. 2009/853), regs. 1(1), 4(3)(h)(iv)

[^key-0ed0633a8edceb5b5c759edfc2ccc332]: Sch. para. 12A inserted (15.6.2009) by The Financial Markets and Insolvency Regulations 2009 (S.I. 2009/853), regs. 1(1), 4(3)(c)

[^key-0f3a477a745b9a2b5ac7db2302dfc9ee]: Reg. 10 in force at 1.12.2001, see reg. 2

[^key-0f8523b47563da2013bc0584dbcb798e]: Sch. para. 5 revoked (1.7.2005) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Market Abuse) Regulations 2005 (revoked) 2005 (S.I. 2005/381), regs. 1(2), 11

[^key-11a7c38d945a9630cc1709251c81ca10]: Sch. para. 7C(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(9) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-11e8295f49d91f105d151c84a363c627]: Words in reg. 3(1) omitted (29.6.2017 for specified purposes, 3.7.2017 for specified purposes, 31.7.2017 for specified purposes, 3.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/701), reg. 1(2)(3)(4)(6), Sch. 3 para. 1(2)(b) (with reg. 7)

[^key-1299a7f99db9be3848d4f2ebb301556e]: Words in Sch. para. 9F(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(16)(a) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-12d9fbf03fe8d7eb9484e12ec51323f5]: Words in Sch. para. 2B(2)(b)(ii) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(2)(a) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-134da8f46818f91f49dc21e9488a9cd4]: Sch. para. 4B omitted (29.6.2017 for specified purposes, 3.7.2017 for specified purposes, 31.7.2017 for specified purposes, 3.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/701), reg. 1(2)(3)(4)(6), Sch. 3 para. 1(8) (with reg. 7)

[^key-158e949f2bccb7e299b8fd57a55c3832]: Sch. para. 4C omitted (26.7.2021) by virtue of The Markets in Financial Instruments (Capital Markets) (Amendment) Regulations 2021 (S.I. 2021/774), regs. 1(2), 2(2)

[^key-15d39c694eaee83b0af3cfab0d6938dd]: Words in Sch. para. 3G(1) substituted (26.3.2020) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Central Counterparties, Investment Exchanges, Prospectus and Benchmarks) (Amendment) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/117), regs. 1(3), 4(2)

[^key-15f53938c788bd8e9ee29e7639b12c13]: Sch. para. 21 in force at 1.12.2001, see reg. 2

[^key-16c326bfeda60663940850b874fa78a8]: Words in reg. 3(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 19(2)(l) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-16ca287cf36fb1b69662391fcf279ebf]: Sch. para. 7B(4) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(7)(b) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-1783faa760d045013478b00e35d208d6]: Words in Sch. para. 3C(a)(iv) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 20(4)(a)(iv) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[^key-17be3d4c1b5ee9c03459e5c03e8d556a]: Words in reg. 3(1) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Investment Exchanges, Clearing Houses and Central Securities Depositories (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/662), regs. 1(3), 19(2)(r) (with savings in S.I. 2019/680, reg. 11 (as amended by S.I. 2020/1301, regs. 1, 3, Sch. para. 40(f))); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

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