The Local Government Pension Scheme Regulations 2013
- (b) the amount of the liabilities arising in respect of such members,
during the period covered by the certificate.
- (9) The administering authority must provide the actuary preparing a valuation or a rates and adjustments certificate with the consolidated revenue account of the fund and such other information as the actuary requests.
Aggregate Scheme costs
63
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Special circumstances where revised actuarial valuations and certificates must be obtained
64
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2A), if a person—
- (a) ceases to be a Scheme employer (including ceasing to be an admission body participating in the Scheme), or
- (b) is or was a Scheme employer, but irrespective of whether that employer employs active members contributing to one or more other funds, no longer has an active member contributing towards a fund (“a relevant fund”) which has liabilities in respect of benefits in respect of current and former employees of that employer,
that person becomes “an exiting employer” in relation to the relevant fund for the purposes of this regulation and is liable to pay an exit payment or entitled to receive an exit credit.
- (2) When a person becomes an exiting employer, the appropriate administering authority must obtain—
- (a) an actuarial valuation as at the exit date of the liabilities of the fund in respect of benefits in respect of the exiting employer's current and former employees; and
- (b) a revised rates and adjustments certificate showing the exit payment due from the exiting employer the excess of assets in the fund relating to that employer over the liabilities specified in paragraph (2)(a)
- (2ZAA) Compensation paid by the scheme to a person by virtue of section 82(1) of PSPJOA 2022 or additional benefits payable by virtue of regulation 4S of the 2014 Regulations are liabilities for the purpose of the actuarial valuation under paragraph (2)(a).
- (2ZA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- (2ZAB) An administering authority must determine the amount of an exit credit, which may be zero, taking into account the factors specified in paragraph (2ZC) and must—
- (a) notify its intention to make a determination to—
- (i) the exiting employer and any other body that has provided a guarantee to the exiting employer under paragraph 8 of Part 3 to Schedule 2 to these Regulations;
- (ii) where the exiting employer is a body that has participated in the Scheme as a result of an admission agreement under paragraph (1)(d) of Part 3 of Schedule 2, the Scheme employer in connection with the exercise of whose function it was providing a service or assets ; and
- (b) pay the amount determined to that exiting employer within six months of the exit date, or such longer time as the administering authority and the exiting employer may agree.
- (2ZB) When an administering authority has paid an exit credit to an exiting employer, no further payments are due from that administering authority in respect of any surplus assets relating to the benefits in respect of any current or former employees of that employer as a result of these Regulations.
- (2ZC) In exercising its discretion to determine the amount of any exit credit the administering authority must have regard to the following factors—
- (a) the extent to which there is an excess of assets in the fund relating to that employer over the liabilities specified in paragraph (2)(a);
- (b) the proportion of this excess of assets which has arisen because of the value of the employer’s contributions;
- (c) any representations to the administering authority made by the exiting employer and, where that employer participates in the scheme by virtue of an admission agreement, any body listed in paragraphs (8)(a) to (d)(iii) of Part 3 to Schedule 2 to these Regulations; and
- (d) any other relevant factors.
- (2A) An administering authority may by written notice (“a suspension notice”) to an exiting employer suspend that employer’s liability to pay an exit payment for a period of up to 3 years starting from the date when that employer would otherwise become an exiting employer, if the condition in paragraph (2B) is met.
- (2B) The condition mentioned in paragraph (2A) is that in the reasonable opinion of the administering authority the employer is likely to have one or more active members contributing to the fund within the period specified in the suspension notice.
- (2C) If an administering authority serves a suspension notice on an employer, unless that suspension notice is withdrawn, paragraph (2) does not apply in respect of that employer, but the employer must continue to make such contributions towards the liabilities of the fund in respect of benefits in respect of the employer’s current and former employees as the administering authority reasonably requires.
- (3) Where for any reason it is not possible to obtain all or part of the exit payment due from the exiting employer, or from an insurer, or any person providing an indemnity, bond or guarantee on behalf of the exiting employer, the administering authority must obtain a further revision of any rates and adjustments certificate for the fund showing—
- (a) in the case where a body is an admission body falling within paragraph 1(d) of Part 3 of Schedule 2 to these Regulations (Scheme employers: bodies providing services as a result of transfer of a service), the revised contribution due from the body which is the related employer in relation to that admission body; and
- (b) in any other case, the revised contributions due from each Scheme employer which contributes to the fund,
with a view to providing that assets equivalent to the exit payment due from the exiting employer are provided to the fund over such period of time as the administering authority considers reasonable.
- (4) Where in the opinion of an administering authority there are circumstances which make it likely that a Scheme employer (including an admission body) will become an exiting employer, the administering authority may obtain from an actuary a certificate specifying the percentage or amount by which, in the actuary's opinion—
- (a) the contribution at the primary rate should be adjusted; or
- (b) any prior secondary rate adjustment should be increased or reduced,
with a view to providing that assets equivalent to the exit payment that will be due from the Scheme employer are provided to the fund by the likely exit date or, where the Scheme employer is unable to meet that liability by that date, over such period of time thereafter as the administering authority considers reasonable.
- (5) When an exiting employer has paid an exit payment into the appropriate fund, no further payments are due from that employer in respect of any liabilities relating to the benefits in respect of any current or former employees of that employer as a result of these Regulations.
- (6) Paragraph (7) applies where—
- (a) a Scheme employer agrees to pay increased contributions to meet the cost of an award of additional pension under regulation 31 (award of additional pension); or
- (b) it appears likely to an administering authority that the amount of the liabilities arising or likely to arise in respect of members in employment with a Scheme employer exceeds the amount specified, or likely as a result of the assumptions stated, for that authority, in a rates and adjustments certificate by virtue of regulation 62(8) (actuarial valuations of pension funds: assumptions).
- (7) The administering authority must obtain a revision of the rates and adjustments certificate concerned, showing the resulting changes as respects that Scheme employer.
- (7A) An administering authority may enter into a written agreement with an exiting Scheme employer for that employer to defer their obligation to make an exit payment and continue to make contributions at the secondary rate (“a deferred debt agreement”).
- (7B) An administering authority may enter into a deferred debt agreement with an exiting Scheme employer where—
- (a) the last active member in respect of that Scheme employer has left the Scheme;
- (b) the funding strategy mentioned in regulation 58 (funding strategy statements) has set out the administering authority’s policy on deferred debt agreements; and
- (c) the administering authority has—
- (i) consulted the exiting Scheme employer; and
- (ii) had regard to the views of an actuary appointed by the administering authority.
- (7C) Where a deferred debt agreement has been entered into under paragraph (7A)—
- (a) the exiting employer becomes a deferred employer on the date specified in the agreement;
- (b) the deferred employer must—
- (i) meet all requirements on Scheme employers except the requirement to pay the primary rate of contributions as determined under regulation 62(5) (actuarial valuations of pension funds); and
- (ii) pay the secondary rate of contributions as determined under regulation 62(7) as revised from time to time following an actuarial valuation until the termination of the deferred debt agreement.
- (7D) A deferred debt agreement must include express provision for it to remain in force for a specified period, which may be varied by agreement of the administering authority and the deferred employer.
- (7E) A deferred debt agreement terminates on the first date on which one of the following events occurs—
- (a) the deferred employer enrols new active members;
- (b) the period specified, or as varied, under paragraph (7D) elapses;
- (c) the take-over, amalgamation, insolvency, winding up or liquidation of the deferred employer;
- (d) the administering authority serves a notice on the deferred employer that the administering authority is reasonably satisfied that the deferred employer’s ability to meet the contributions payable under the deferred debt arrangement has weakened materially or is likely to weaken materially in the next 12 months; or
- (e) an actuary appointed by the administering authority assesses that the deferred employer has paid sufficient secondary contributions to cover the exit payment that would have been due under paragraph (1) if the employer had become an exiting employer on the calculation date.
- (7F) Paragraph (7E)(c) does not apply where the administering authority serves a notice on the deferred employer that the administering authority is satisfied that the event would not be likely to significantly weaken the deferred employer’s ability to meet the contributions payable under the deferred debt agreement in the next 12 months.
- (7G) On the termination of a deferred debt agreement under paragraph (7E) a deferred employer becomes an exiting employer in relation to the relevant fund for the purposes of this regulation.
- (8) For the purposes of this regulation—
- “exiting employer” means an employer of any of the descriptions specified in paragraph (1);
- “deferred employer” means a Scheme employer which enters into a deferred debt agreement with an administering authority;
- “exit credit” means any amount paid to the exiting employer by the administering authority to meet the excess of assets in the fund relating to that employer over the liabilities specified in paragraph (2).
- “exit payment” means the assets required to be paid by the exiting employer over such period of time as the administering authority considers reasonable, to meet the liabilities specified in paragraph (2);
- “exit date” means the date on which the employer becomes an exiting employer; and
- “related employer” means any Scheme employer or other such contracting body which is a party to the admission agreement (other than an administering authority in its role as an administering authority) .
- (9) Paragraph (10) applies—
- (a) where the exiting employer is a probation trust established under section 5 of the Offender Management Act 2007 and the liabilities of the fund in respect of benefits due to or in respect of the probation trust’s current and former employees (or those of its predecessor local probation boards or probation committees) have been or are to be transferred to another person as a result of arrangements made for the provision of probation services under section 3 of that Act (power to make arrangements for the provision of probation services); or
- (b) in any other case where the exiting employer is engaged in the provision of probation services, but only to the extent provided for under the relevant admission agreement, in relation to any liabilities of the fund in respect of benefits due to or in respect of the current and former employees of the exiting employer which have been or are to be, with effect from the day following the exit date, transferred to one or more other Scheme employers as a result of arrangements made for the provision of probation services under section 3 of that Act.
- (10) Where this paragraph applies, no exit payment is due under paragraph (1) and paragraph (2) does not apply.
- (11) Paragraph (12) applies where the exiting employers are Buckinghamshire County Council, Aylesbury Vale District Council, Chiltern District Council, South Bucks District Council and Wycombe District Council and the liabilities of the fund in respect of benefits due to or in respect of current or former employees (or those of any predecessor authority) of these exiting employers vest in Buckinghamshire Council.
- (12) Where this paragraph applies, no exit payment or exit credit is due under paragraph (1) and paragraph (2) does not apply.
- (13) Where the exiting employers are Northamptonshire County Council, Corby Borough Council, Daventry District Council, East Northamptonshire District Council, Kettering Borough Council, Northampton Borough Council, South Northamptonshire District Council and Wellingborough Borough Council—
- (a) the assets and liabilities of the fund in respect of benefits due to or in respect of current or former employees (or those of any predecessor authority) of the exiting employers shall be allocated between North Northamptonshire Council and West Northamptonshire Council in proportions to be determined by West Northamptonshire Council, and
- (b) paragraph (14) applies.
- (14) No exit payment or exit credit is due under paragraph (1) and paragraph (2) does not apply.
- (15) In determining the proportions for the purposes of paragraph (13)(a) West Northamptonshire Council must seek advice from an actuary and consult with North Northamptonshire Council.
- (16) Where the exiting employers are Cumbria County Council, Allerdale Borough Council, Barrow-in-Furness Borough Council, Carlisle City Council, Copeland Borough Council, Eden District Council and South Lakeland District Council—
- (a) the assets and liabilities of the fund in respect of current or former employees (or those of any predecessor authority) of the exiting employers must be allocated between Cumberland Council and Westmorland and Furness Council in proportions to be determined by Westmorland and Furness Council, and
- (b) paragraph (17) applies.
- (17) Where this paragraph applies, no exit payment or exit credit is due under paragraph (1) and paragraph (2) does not apply.
- (18) In determining the proportions for the purposes of paragraph (16)(a) Westmorland and Furness Council must seek advice from an actuary and consult with Cumberland Council.
- (19) Paragraph (20) applies where the exiting employers are Craven District Council, Hambleton District Council, Harrogate Borough Council, Richmondshire District Council, Ryedale District Council, Scarborough Borough Council and Selby District Council and the liabilities of the fund in respect of current or former employees (or those of any predecessor authority) of these exiting employers vest in North Yorkshire Council.
- (20) Where this paragraph applies, no exit payment or exit credit is due under paragraph (1) and paragraph (2) does not apply.
- (21) Paragraph (22) applies where the exiting employers are Mendip District Council, Sedgemoor District Council, Somerset West and Taunton Council and South Somerset Council and the liabilities of the fund in respect of current or former employees (or those of any predecessor authority) of these exiting employers vest in Somerset Council.
- (22) Where this paragraph applies, no exit payment or exit credit is due under paragraph (1) and paragraph (2) does not apply.
Aggregate Scheme costs: revised certificates
65
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Supply of copies of valuations, certificates etc
66
- (1) An administering authority must publish and send copies of any valuation, report, certificate or revised certificate obtained under regulations 62 (actuarial valuation of pension funds) or 64 (special circumstances where revised actuarial valuations and certificates must be obtained) to—
- (a) the Secretary of State;
- (b) each body with employees who contribute to the fund in question; and
- (c) any other body which is, or may become liable to make payments to that fund.
- (2) An administering authority must also send to the Secretary of State—
- (a) a copy of the consolidated revenue account with which the actuary was provided under regulation 62(9); and
- (b) a summary of the assets of the fund at the valuation date (unless such a summary is contained in the report under regulation 62(1)(b)).
Payments
Employer’s contributions
67
- (1) A Scheme employer must contribute to the appropriate fund in each year covered by a rates and adjustment certificate under regulation 62 (actuarial valuations of pension funds) or 64 (circumstances in which revised actuarial valuations and certificates must be obtained) the amount appropriate for that authority as calculated in accordance with the certificate and paragraph (4).
- (2) During each of those years a Scheme employer must make payments to the appropriate fund on account of the amount required for the whole year.
- (3) Those payments on account must—
- (a) be paid at the end of the intervals determined under regulation 69 (payment by Scheme employers to administering authorities); and
- (b) equal the appropriate proportion of the whole amount due under paragraph (1) for the year in question.
- (4) An employer's contribution for any year is the primary percentage for that year of—
- (a) the pensionable pay on which contributions have been paid into the fund by active members in accordance with regulations 9 to 12 and 14 (contributions), except where sub-paragraph (b) applies, and
- (b) the assumed pensionable pay in respect of members on leave due to sickness or injury on reduced contractual pay or no pay or on child-related leave,
increased or reduced by any secondary rate adjustments specified for that employer for that year in the rates and adjustments certificate.
- (5) The primary percentage is the primary rate of the employer's contribution specified in that certificate expressed as a percentage of the pay of its employees who are active members.
- (6) A Scheme employer must also pay into the appropriate fund in each year any employer contributions made under regulation 16 (additional pension contributions).
Employer’s further payments
68
- (1) Any extra charge on the appropriate fund resulting from a member becoming entitled to benefits under regulation 35 (early payment of retirement pension on ill-health grounds) or 38 (early payment of retirement pension on ill-health grounds: deferred and deferred pensioner members) must be paid into the fund by the Scheme employer concerned.
- (2) An administering authority may require the Scheme employer concerned to make additional payments to the appropriate fund in respect of any extra charge on the fund resulting from retirements benefits becoming immediately payable to a member under regulation 30(5) (early retirement), (6) (flexible retirement) or (7) (early leavers on grounds of redundancy or business efficiency), including the cost as calculated by an actuary appointed by the administering authority, as a result of a waiver of any reduction under regulation 30(8).
- (3) Other than where regulation 64(6) (special circumstances where revised actuarial valuations and certificates must be obtained) applies, a Scheme employer making an award under regulation 31 (award of additional pension) must pay a sum into the appropriate fund to meet the cost of any additional pension, in accordance with actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State.
Payment by Scheme employers to administering authorities
69
- (1) Every Scheme employer must pay to the appropriate administering authority on or before such dates falling at intervals of not more than 12 months as the appropriate administering authority may determine—
- (a) all amounts received from time to time from employees under regulations 9 to 14 and 16 (contributions);
- (b) any charge payable under regulation 68 (employer's further payments) of which it has been notified by the administering authority during the interval;
- (c) a contribution towards the cost of the administration of the fund; and
- (d) any amount specified in a notice given in accordance with regulation 70 (additional costs arising from Scheme employer's level of performance).
- (e) all amounts received from time to time from the Ministry of Defence in respect of contributions for a member on reserve forces service leave.
- (2) But—
- (a) a Scheme employer must pay the amounts mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) within the prescribed period referred to in section 49(8) of the Pensions Act 1995 ; and
- (b) paragraph (1)(c) does not apply where the cost of the administration of the fund is paid out of the fund under regulation 4(5) (management of a pension fund) of the Local Government Pension Scheme (Management and Investment of Funds) Regulations 2016.
- (3) Every payment under paragraph (1)(a) must be accompanied by a statement showing—
- (a) the total pensionable pay received by members during the period covered by the statement whilst regulations 9 (contributions) applied (including the assumed pensionable pay members were treated as receiving during that period),
- (b) the total employee contributions deducted from the pensionable pay referred to in sub-paragraph (a),
- (c) the total pensionable pay received by members during the period covered by the statement whilst regulation 10 applied (including the assumed pensionable pay members were treated as receiving during that period),
- (d) the total employee contributions deducted from pensionable pay referred to in sub-paragraph (c),
- (e) the total employer contributions in respect of the pensionable pay referred to in sub-paragraphs (a) and (c),
- (f) the total additional pension contributions paid by members under regulation 16 (additional pension contributions) during the period covered by the statement, and
- (g) the total additional pension contributions paid by the employer under regulation 16 (additional pension contributions) during the period covered by the statement.
- (4) An administering authority may direct that the information mentioned in paragraph (3) shall be given to the authority in such form... as it specifies in the direction.
- (5) If an amount payable under paragraph (1)(c) or (d) can not be settled by agreement, it must be determined by the Secretary of State.
Additional costs arising from Scheme employer’s level of performance
70
- (1) This regulation applies where, in the opinion of an administering authority, it has incurred additional costs which should be recovered from a Scheme employer because of that employer's level of performance in carrying out its functions under these Regulations.
- (2) The administering authority may give written notice to the Scheme employer stating—
- (a) the administering authority's reasons for forming the opinion mentioned in paragraph (1);
- (b) the amount the authority has determined the Scheme employer should pay under regulation 69(1)(d) (payments by Scheme employers to administering authorities) in respect of those costs and the basis on which the specified amount is calculated; and
- (c) where the administering authority has prepared a pension administration strategy under regulation 59, the provisions of the strategy which are relevant to the decision to give the notice and to the matters in sub-paragraphs (a) or (b).
Interest on late payments by Scheme employers
71
- (1) An administering authority may require a Scheme employer or former Scheme employer from which any payment is due under regulations 67 to 70 (employer's contributions or payments) is overdue to pay interest on that amount.
- (2) The date on which any amount due under regulations 67 (employer's contributions), 68 (employer's further payments), 70 (additional costs arising from Scheme employer's level of performance) is overdue is one month from the date specified by the administering authority for payment.
- (3) The date on which any amount due under regulation 69 (payment by Scheme employers to administering authorities) (other than an extra charge payable under regulation 68 and referred to in regulation 69(1)(b)) is overdue is the day after the date when that payment is due.
- (4) Interest payable under this regulation must be calculated at one per cent above base rate on a day to day basis from the due date to the date of payment and compounded with three-monthly rests.
Decisions
First instance decisions
72
- (1) Any question concerning the rights or liabilities under the Scheme of any person other than a Scheme employer must be decided in the first instance by the person specified in this regulation.
- (2) In these Regulations, reference to the Scheme employer or appropriate administering authority of a prospective member is a reference to the body that would be that prospective member's Scheme employer or appropriate administering authority if that person were to become an active member in the employment by virtue of which eligibility to join the Scheme would be established.
- (3) The appropriate administering authority must decide any question concerning—
- (a) a person's previous service or employment;
- (b) the crediting of additional pension under regulation 16 (additional pension); and
- (c) the amount of any benefit, or return of contributions, a person is or may become entitled to out of a pension fund.
- (4) A person's Scheme employer must decide any question concerning any other matter relating to the person's rights or liabilities under the Scheme.
- (5) A decision under this regulation must be made as soon as is reasonably practicable.
Notification of first instance decisions
73
- (1) Every person whose rights or liabilities are affected by a decision under regulation 72 (first instance decisions) must be notified of it in writing by the body which made it as soon as is reasonably practicable after the decision is made.
- (2) A notification of a decision that the person is not entitled to a benefit must contain the grounds for the decision.
- (3) A notification of a decision about the amount of a benefit must contain a statement showing how it is calculated.
- (4) Every notification must contain a conspicuous statement giving the address from which further information about the decision may be obtained.
- (5) Every notification must also—
- (a) specify the rights available under regulations 74 (applications for adjudication of disagreements) and 76 (references of adjudications to administering authority);
- (b) specify the time limits within which the rights under those regulations may be exercised; and
- (c) specify the job title and the address of the person appointed under regulation 74(1) to whom an application may be made.
Applications for adjudication of disagreements
74
- (1) Each Scheme employer and administering authority must appoint a person (“the adjudicator”) to consider applications from any person whose rights or liabilities under the Scheme are affected by—
- (a) a decision under regulation 72 (first instance decisions); or
- (b) any other act or omission by a Scheme employer or administering authority,
and to make a decision on such applications.
- (2) An applicant under paragraph (1)(a) may apply to the adjudicator appointed by the body making the decision, within six months of the date notification of the decision is given under regulation 73 (notification of first instance decisions).
- (3) An applicant under paragraph (1)(b) may apply to the adjudicator appointed by the body responsible for the act or omission, within six months of the date of the act or omission which is the cause of the disagreement, or, if there is more than one, the last of them.
- (4) The adjudicator may extend the time for making an application under paragraph (2) or (3).
- (5) An application under paragraph (2) or (3) must—
- (a) set out the applicant's name, address and date of birth;
- (b) if the applicant is not a member of the Scheme, set out the applicant's relationship to any relevant member of the Scheme and give that member's full name, address, date of birth, national insurance number and the name of the member's Scheme employer;
- (c) include a statement giving details of the nature of the disagreement and the reasons why the applicant is aggrieved;
- (d) be accompanied by a copy of any written notification under regulation 73 (notification of first instance decision); and
- (e) be signed by or on behalf of the applicant.
- (6) The adjudicator must determine—
- (a) the procedure to be followed when exercising functions under this regulation; and
- (b) the manner in which those functions are to be exercised.
Decisions of the adjudicator
75
- (1) The adjudicator must give written notice of a decision under regulation 74 (applications for adjudication of disagreements) to—
- (a) the applicant;
- (b) the Scheme employer; and
- (c) if the Scheme employer is not an administering authority, to the appropriate administering authority
before the expiry of two months beginning with the date on which the application was received.
- (2) But if no such notice is given before the expiry of that period, an interim reply must immediately be sent to the persons mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) to (c) setting out—
- (a) the reasons for the delay; and
- (b) an expected date for giving the decision (“the expected decision date”).
- (3) A notice under paragraph (1) must include—
- (a) a statement of the decision;
- (b) a reference to any legislation on which the adjudicator relied;
- (c) in a case where the disagreement relates to the exercise of a discretion, a reference to the provisions of these Regulations conferring the discretion;
- (d) a reference to the right of the applicant to refer the disagreement for reconsideration by the appropriate administering authority under regulation 76 (reference of adjudications to administering authority) and to the time within which the applicant may do so; and
- (e) a statement that the Money and Pensions Service is available to give assistance in connection with any difficulty with the Scheme that remains unresolved including the address at which it may be contacted.
- (4) A decision under paragraph (1) takes effect as a decision of the Scheme employer or administering authority, as the case may be, except where the matter concerns the exercise of a discretion, in which case, if the adjudicator does not uphold the decision, the matter must be referred back to the body which made the decision under adjudication for reconsideration or, where that body would have been the Scheme employer but that body is no longer a Scheme employer, to the appropriate administering authority.
Reference of adjudications to administering authority
76
- (1) An applicant under regulation 74 (applications for adjudication of disagreements) may refer a decision under regulation 75 (decisions of the adjudicator) for reconsideration by the appropriate administering authority.
- (2) A reference under paragraph (1) must—
- (a) be made before the relevant date;
- (b) set out the applicant's full name, address and date of birth;
- (c) if the applicant is not a member of the Scheme, set out the applicant's relationship to any relevant member of the Scheme and give that member's full name, address, date of birth, national insurance number and the name of the member's Scheme employer;
- (d) include a statement that the applicant wishes the decision to be reconsidered by the administering authority;
- (e) set out the details of the grounds on which the applicant relies;
- (f) be accompanied by a copy of any written notifications under regulations 73 (notification of first instance decisions) and 75 (decisions of the adjudicator); and
- (g) be signed by or on behalf of the applicant.
- (3) The relevant date for the purposes of paragraph (2)(a) is—
- (a) in a case where notice of a decision has been given under regulation 75(1), six months from the date the notice is received;
- (b) in a case where an interim reply has been sent under regulation 75(2), but no notice has been given under regulation 75(1), seven months from the expected decision date; and
- (c) in a case where no notice have been given under regulation 75(1) and no interim reply was sent under regulation 75(2), nine months from the date on which the application was made.
- (4) The administering authority must determine—
- (a) the procedure to be followed when exercising its functions under this regulation; and
- (b) the manner in which those functions are to be exercised, but it must ensure that no person who was involved in the making of a first-instance decision or a decision under regulation 75 (decisions of the adjudicator) is involved in a decision on reconsideration.
- (5) For the purposes of paragraph (1) of this regulation, the appropriate administering authority is the administering authority which is or was the last appropriate administering authority for the member who is the applicant, or who is the relevant member in relation to any other applicant.
Decisions of the administering authority on reconsideration
77
- (1) An administering authority must give written notice of its decision after reconsideration under regulation 76 (reference of adjudications to administering authority) to—
- (a) the applicant; and
- (b) where the administering authority is not the Scheme employer, to the Scheme employer,
before the expiry of the period of two months beginning with the date the application is received.
- (2) But if no such notice is given before the expiry of that period, an interim reply must be sent as soon as is reasonably practicable to the persons mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) and (b) setting out—
- (a) the reasons for the delay; and
- (b) an expected date for giving the decision (“the expected decision date”)
- (3) A notice under paragraph (1) must include—
- (a) a statement of the decision;
- (b) a reference to any legislation on which the administering authority relied;
- (c) in a case where the disagreement relates to the exercise of a discretion, a reference to the provisions of these Regulations conferring the discretion;
- (d) a statement that the Money and Pensions Service is available to give assistance in connection with any difficulty with the Scheme that remains unresolved;
- (e) a statement that the Pensions Ombudsman may investigate and determine any complaint or dispute of fact or law in relation to the Scheme made or referred in accordance with the Pension Schemes Act 1993 ; and
- (f) the addresses at which the Money and Pensions Service and the Pensions Ombudsman may be contacted.
- (4) A decision under paragraph (1) takes effect as a decision of the Scheme employer or administering authority, as the case may be, except where the matter concerns the exercise of a discretion, in which case, if the adjudicator does not uphold the decision, the matter must be referred back to the body which made the decision under adjudication for reconsideration or, where that body would have been the Scheme employer but that body is no longer a Scheme employer, to the appropriate administering authority.
Rights of representation
78
- (1) An application under regulation 74 (applications for adjudication of disagreements) or 76 (reference of adjudications to administering authority) may be made or continued to be made on behalf of the applicant by a representative nominated by the applicant.
- (2) Where a person who has the right to make, or has made such an application dies, the application may be made or continued on the applicant's behalf by the applicant's personal representatives.
- (3) Where such a person is a minor or is or becomes incapable of acting, the application may be made or continued on the applicant's behalf by a family member or some other suitable representative.
- (4) Where a representative is nominated before an application is made, the application must specify the representative's full name and address, and whether that address is to be used for service on the applicant of any documents in connection with the application.
- (5) Where a representative's address is not to be so used, the representative must nevertheless be sent a copy of—
- (a) any notice under regulation 75(1) (decisions of the adjudicator) or 77(1) (decisions of the administering authority on reconsideration); or
- (b) an interim reply under regulation 75(2) or 77(2).
Appeals by administering authorities
79
- (1) This regulation applies where a Scheme employer—
- (a) has decided, or failed to decide any question falling to be decided by that employer under regulation 72 (first instance decisions), otherwise than in the exercise of a discretion; and
- (b) is not an administering authority.
- (2) Where this regulation applies, an administering authority maintaining a pension fund into which a Scheme employer pays contributions may appeal to the Secretary of State against the employer's decision on a question or failure to make a decision on a question.
- (3) Such an appeal must be made by notice in writing given before the end of—
- (a) the period of six months beginning with the relevant date; or
- (b) such longer period as the Secretary of State allows.
- (4) The relevant date is—
- (a) where a Scheme employer has decided a question, the date of the notification of the decision; or
- (b) where a Scheme employer has failed to decide a question, the date of the failure.
- (5) For the purposes of paragraph (4)(b) a Scheme employer is to be taken to have failed to decide a question if it has not given a decision in writing at the expiry of three months beginning with the date on which the administering authority has requested a decision in writing.
- (6) Subject to paragraph (7), the Secretary of State must make a decision on the appeal which is to take effect as a decision of the Scheme employer and must issue a notice in writing to the appellant and to any other person appearing to the Secretary of State to be affected by it.
- (7) The appeal must be stayed if, before the appeal is determined, any application is made to the adjudicator under regulation 74 (applications for adjudication of disagreements), or reference to the administering authority under regulation 76 (reference of adjudications to administering authority) in respect of any of the matters which are the subject of the appeal under this regulation.
- (8) The administering authority must inform the Secretary of State whether it wishes to continue with an appeal stayed under paragraph (7), or to withdraw it and if the appeal is continued, the Secretary of State must make a decision under paragraph (6).
Exchange of information
80
- (1) A Scheme employer must—
- (a) inform the appropriate administering authority of all decisions made by the employer under regulation 72 (first instance decisions) or by an adjudicator appointed by the Scheme employer under regulation 74 (applications for adjudication of disagreements) concerning members; and
- (b) give that authority such other information as it requires for discharging its Scheme functions.
- (2) If—
- (a) an administering authority makes any decision under regulations 72 (first instance decisions), 75 (decisions of the adjudicator) or 76 (reference of adjudications to administering authority) about a person for whom it is not the Scheme employer; and
- (b) information about that decision is required by the person's Scheme employer for discharging that employer's Scheme functions,
that authority must give that employer that information if asked to supply it.
- (3) Within three months of the end of each Scheme year, each Scheme employer must give a statement to the appropriate administering authority giving the following details in respect of each employee who has been an active member during the Scheme year—
- (a) the employee's name and gender;
- (b) the employee's date of birth and national insurance number;
- (c) a unique reference number relating to each employment in which the employee has been an active member; and
- (d) the information relating to the employee for the Scheme year in question for each employment which is specified in paragraph (4).
- (4) The information required by paragraph (3)(d) is—
- (a) the dates of active membership;
- (b) the pensionable pay received and employee contributions deducted while regulation 9 (contributions) applied;
- (c) the pensionable pay received and employee contributions deducted while regulation 10 (temporary reduction in contributions) applied;
- (d) any contributions by the employer in relation to the employee's pensionable pay;
- (e) any contributions by employee or employer under regulation 16 (additional pension contributions);
- (f) any contributions by employee or employer under regulation 17 (additional voluntary contributions).
Interest on late payment of certain benefits
81
- (A1) This regulation does not apply to sums in respect of which interest is payable under—
- (a) regulation 4V of the 2014 Regulations; or
- (b) regulation 14 of the Local Government Pension Scheme (Amendment) (No. 3) Regulations 2023.
- (1) Where all or part of a pension or lump sum payment due under these Regulations (other than a payment due under regulation 17 (additional voluntary contributions)) is not paid within the relevant period after the due date, an administering authority must pay interest on the unpaid amount to the person to whom it is payable.
- (2) The relevant period is—
- (a) in the case of a survivor pension, the period ending one month after the date on which the administering authority receives notification of the member's death;
- (b) in the case of any other pension, one year; or
- (c) in the case of a lump sum payment, one month.
- (3) The due date is—
- (a) in the case of a pension, the date on which it becomes payable;
- (b) in the case of a lump sum under regulation 33 (election for lump sum instead of pension) the benefit crystallisation event date;
- (c) in the case of a death grant, the date on which the member dies or, where notification of death is received more than two years after the date of death, the date of notification; or
- (d) in the case of a lump sum under regulation 34 (commutation and small pensions) the date of the commutation election or, if later, the nominated date within the meaning of paragraph 7(3) of Part 1 of Schedule 29 to the Finance Act 2004 .
- (4) Interest payable under this regulation is calculated at one per cent above base rate on a day to day basis from the due date of payment and compounded with three-monthly rests.
Payments due in respect of deceased persons
82
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies if, when a person dies, the total amount due to that person's personal representatives under the Scheme (including anything due at that person's death) does not exceed the amount specified in any order for the time being in force under section 6 of the Administration of Estates (Small Payments) Act 1965 and applying in relation to that person's death.
- (2) An administering authority may pay the whole or part of the amount due from its pension fund to—
- (a) a person's personal representatives, or
- (b) any person or persons appearing to the authority to be beneficially entitled to the estate,
without the production of probate or letters of administration of the person's estate.
- (3) Such a payment discharges that authority from accounting for the amount paid.
Payments for persons incapable of managing their affairs
83
If it appears to an administering authority that a person ... is entitled to payment of benefits under the Scheme but is, by reason of mental disorder or otherwise, incapable of managing his or her affairs—
- (a) the authority may pay the benefits or any part of them to a person having the care of the person entitled, or such other person as the authority may determine, to be applied for the benefit of the person entitled; and
- (b) in so far as the authority does not pay the benefits in that manner, the authority may apply them in such manner as the authority may determine, for the benefit of the person entitled, or any beneficiaries of the person entitled.
Non-assignability
84
- (1) Every benefit to which a person is entitled under the Scheme is payable to or in trust for that person.
- (2) No such benefit is assignable or chargeable with that person's, or any other person's, debts or other liabilities.
- (3) On the bankruptcy of a person entitled to a benefit under the Scheme no part of the benefit passes to any trustee or other person acting on behalf of the creditors, except in accordance with an income payments order or agreement under section 310 or 310A of the Insolvency Act 1986 .
Deduction and recovery of member’s contributions
85
- (1) A Scheme employer may deduct from a person's pay any contributions payable by the member under these Regulations.
- (2) Sums payable under regulation 13(1) (reserve forces leave) may be deducted from any payment made under Part 5 of the Reserve and Auxiliary Forces (Protection of Civil Interests) Act 1951 , to the extent that they are payable in respect of the same period.
- (3) An administering authority may recover any contributions or sum remaining due and not deducted under paragraph (1) or (2)—
- (a) as a simple contract debt in any court of competent jurisdiction; or
- (b) by deducting it from any payment by way of benefits to or in respect of the person in question under these Regulations.
- (4) But the sums mentioned in paragraph (2) are only recoverable under paragraph (3) if unpaid for 12 months after the person ceases to perform relevant reserve forces service.
- (5) If—
- (a) a Scheme employer deducts in error any amount in respect of contributions from a person's pay or any other sum due to that person; and
- (b) the amount has not been repaid before the expiry of the period of one month beginning with the date of the deduction,
the appropriate body must pay interest on the amount, and the due date for the calculation of the interest payable is the date of the deduction.
- (6) Where the employee's contributions have been paid into a fund, the repayment and any interest must be made out of that fund.
- (7) Interest must be calculated at one per cent above base rate on a day to day basis from the due date of payment and compounded with three-monthly rests.
- (8) The “appropriate body” for the purposes of paragraph (5) is—
- (a) the appropriate administering authority, where the employee's contributions have been paid into a fund; and
- (b) the person's Scheme employer where the employee's contributions have not yet been paid into a fund.
Joint liability in respect of annual allowance charge
86
- (1) This regulation applies where a member gives notice to the appropriate administering authority of joint and several liability under section 237B (liability of scheme administrator) of the Finance Act 2004 in respect of the member's annual allowance charge.
- (2) Where the joint liability amount specified in the notice is met by the pension fund, the appropriate administering authority must reduce the value of the member's rights accrued under the Scheme in accordance with actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State.
Tax
87
The appropriate administering authority may deduct from any payment of benefits under the Scheme any tax to which they may become chargeable under the Finance Act 2004.
Pension increase under the Pensions Schemes Act 1993
88
Any increase of pension required by reason of Chapter 3 of Part 4 of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 (protection of increases in guaranteed minimum pensions: anti-franking) must be paid from the appropriate fund held by the administering authority.
Annual benefit statements
89
- (1) An administering authority must issue an annual benefit statement to each of its active, deferred, deferred pensioner and pension credit members.
- (2) Subject to paragraph (3), the statement must be issued no later than five months after the end of the Scheme year to which it relates.
- (3) A statement must be issued before the end of the five month period mentioned in paragraph (2) where a member makes a request in writing to the administering authority, unless that authority is unable to comply with the request because relevant data is not available.
- (4) The statement for an active member must be provided in accordance with section 14 of the Public Service Pensions Act 2013 .
- (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Information to be supplied by employees
90
- (1) Before the expiry of three months beginning with the date on which a person becomes a member, the Scheme employer must ask the member in writing for the documents specified in paragraph (2).
- (2) Those documents are—
- (a) a statement in writing listing all the person's previous periods of employment; and
- (b) copies of all notifications previously given to the member under these Regulations and their equivalents under any previous regulations.
- (3) A request under this regulation must contain a conspicuous statement that it is important that the member gives full and accurate information, especially for ascertaining the member's rights under the Scheme.
- (4) The Scheme employer need not request any documents if it is satisfied that it, or the appropriate administering authority (if different), already has all material information.
Forfeiture
Forfeiture of pension rights after conviction for employment-related offences
91
- (1) If a member is convicted of a relevant offence, the former Scheme employer may apply to the Secretary of State who may issue a forfeiture certificate.
- (2) A relevant offence is an offence committed in connection with an employment in which the person convicted is a member, and because of which the member left the employment.
- (3) Where a former Scheme employer applies for a forfeiture certificate, it must at the same time send the convicted person and the appropriate administering authority a copy of the application.
- (4) Where a forfeiture certificate is issued, the member's former Scheme employer may direct that any of the member's rights under these Regulations are forfeited.
- (5) The former Scheme employer must serve a notice of its decision to make a direction on the member.
- (6) A forfeiture certificate is a certificate that the offence—
- (a) was gravely injurious to the State, or
- (b) is liable to lead to a serious loss of confidence in the public service.
- (7) If the former Scheme employer incurred loss as a direct consequence of the relevant offence, it may only give a direction under paragraph (4) if it is unable to recover its loss under regulation 93 (recovery or retention where former member has misconduct obligation) or otherwise, except after an unreasonable time or at disproportionate cost.
- (8) A direction under paragraph (4) may only be given if an application for a forfeiture certificate has been made by the former Scheme employer before the expiry of the period of three months beginning with the date of conviction.
Interim payments directions
92
- (1) If—
- (a) a person leaves an employment in which that person was a member of the Scheme because of an offence in connection with that employment; and
- (b) a forfeiture certificate has been issued under regulation 91(1) (forfeiture of pension rights after conviction of employment-related offences) in respect of that offence,
the former Scheme employer may give an interim payments direction to the appropriate administering authority.
- (2) But it may not give such a direction if it has—
- (a) notified the person of a decision under regulation 72 (first instance decisions) on any question as to entitlement to benefit; or
- (b) given any direction under regulation 91(4) (“a forfeiture direction”).
- (3) An interim payments direction is a direction to make interim payments to any person who appears to the former Scheme employer to be a person who would be entitled to receive payment of a benefit under the Scheme if no forfeiture direction were given.
- (4) The person to whom payments must be made and the amounts must be specified in the direction.
- (5) The amounts must not exceed the amounts which the person specified would be entitled to be paid if no forfeiture direction were given.
- (6) An interim payments direction is not a decision under regulation 72 (first instance decisions) as to any person's entitlement to a benefit.
- (7) Payments in accordance with an interim payments direction shall be deemed to be payments in respect of a benefit to which the recipient was entitled (regardless of any contrary forfeiture direction or decision under regulation 72).
Recovery or retention where former member has misconduct obligation
93
- (1) This regulation applies where a person—
- (a) has left an employment in which that person was or had at some time been a member of the Scheme, in consequence of grave misconduct or a criminal, negligent or fraudulent act or omission in connection with that employment;
- (b) has incurred some monetary obligation, arising out of that misconduct, act or omission, to the body that was the Scheme employer in that employment; and
- (c) is entitled to benefits under these Regulations, which for the purposes of this regulation includes entitlement to a refund of contributions.
- (2) The former Scheme employer may recover or retain out of the appropriate fund the lesser of—
- (a) the amount of the monetary obligation; or
- (b) the value at the time of recovery or retention of all benefits in respect of the former employee with respect to that person's previous membership (as determined by an actuary, except where the benefit is a refund of contributions).
- (3) The rights specified in paragraph (2)(b) do not include earned pension credited under regulation 101 (effect of acceptance of transfer value), additional pension purchased by the member under regulation 16 (additional pension contributions) or additional voluntary contributions paid by the member under regulation 17 (additional voluntary contributions).
- (4) The former Scheme employer must give the former employee—
- (a) not less than three months' notice of the amount to be recovered or retained under paragraph (2); and
- (b) a statement showing the amount recovered or retained, how it is calculated and the effect on the person's benefits or prospective benefits.
- (5) If there is any dispute over the amount of the monetary obligation specified in paragraph (1)(b), the former Scheme employer may not recover or retain any amount under paragraph (2) until the obligation is enforceable under an order of a competent court or the award of an arbitrator.
Adjustment of accounts following forfeiture etc
94
- (1) Where a direction for forfeiture is issued under regulation 91 (forfeiture of pension rights after conviction for employment-related offences) the appropriate administering authority must transfer out of the member's pension account the benefits which are forfeited and pay the relevant Scheme employer an amount determined by an actuary as representing the capital value of those benefits.
- (2) Where an amount is recovered or retained under regulation 93 (recovery or retention where former member has misconduct obligation), the appropriate administering authority must transfer out of the member's pension account the amount recovered or retained and pay it to the relevant Scheme employer.
- (3) If the effect of a forfeiture direction, or of the recovery or retention of an amount, is to extinguish the member's entitlement to benefits, the administering authority must close the member's pension account.
Protection of guaranteed minimum pension rights
95
- (1) The power to direct forfeiture of benefits under regulation 91 (forfeiture of pension rights after conviction for employment-related offences) or to recover or retain amounts under regulation 93 (recovery or retention where former member has misconduct obligation) may not be exercised so as to deprive a person of the guaranteed minimum pension or any widow's, widower's or surviving civil partner's guaranteed minimum pension.
- (2) But such a power may be exercised if the person is convicted—
- (a) of the offence of treason; or
- (b) of one or more offences under the Official Secrets Acts 1911 to 1989 or under section 18 of, or listed in section 33(3)(a) of, the National Security Act 2023, for which the person has been sentenced on the same occasion—
- (i) to a term of imprisonment of at least 10 years, or
- (ii) to two or more consecutive terms amounting in the aggregate to at least 10 years.
Transfers
Rights to payment out of pension fund
96
- (1) A member may apply for a transfer under Chapters 1 or 2 of Part 4ZA of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 and where the member does so the amount of any transfer payment due in respect of the member under the relevant transfer may only be paid by the administering authority from its pension fund if the transfer payment is a recognised transfer (within the meaning of section 169 of the Finance Act 2004) .
- (1A) Where a transfer under paragraph (1) is a Club Transfer, the administering authority must comply with the provisions in the Club Memorandum in relation to that transfer.
- (1B) Where a transfer under paragraph (1) is applied for by an eligible member and is not a Club Transfer, the value of the transfer is to be calculated in accordance with actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State, taking into account the member’s provisional assumed benefits and provisional underpin amount, calculated in accordance with regulations 4I and 4J of the 2014 Regulations.
- (2) Where such a transfer payment is to be or has been paid from a fund, no other payment or transfer of assets may be made from the fund as respects the accrued rights covered by the transfer payment.
- (3) Paragraph (2) overrides anything to the contrary in these Regulations.
- (4) “Eligible member” has the same meaning as in regulation 4A(2) of the 2014 Regulations.
Contracting-out requirements affecting transfers out
97
- (1) There must be deducted from the transfer payment to be made in respect of any person to a contracted-in defined benefit registered pension scheme—
- (a) the amount of any contributions equivalent premium payable pursuant to section 55 of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 ; or
- (b) an amount sufficient to meet the liability in respect of the person's contracted-out rights.
- (2) Where the amount mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) is deducted, the appropriate administering authority must use that amount to pay the premium.
- (3) Where the amount mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) is deducted, the appropriate administering authority may use the amount in preserving the liability mentioned in that paragraph in the appropriate fund unless the member wishes a transfer payment in respect of it to be paid to the trustees or managers of a contracted-out defined benefit or contracted-in defined contribution registered pension scheme.
- (4) Contracted-out rights, in relation to a member, are—
- (a) the member's, and any surviving spouse's, civil partner's or cohabiting partner's rights to guaranteed minimum pensions; and
- (b) the member's section 9(2B) rights as defined in regulation 1(2) of the Occupational Pension Schemes (Contracting-out) Regulations 1996 .
Bulk transfer (transfers of undertakings etc)
98
- (1) This regulation applies where—
- (a) two or more members' active membership ends on their joining a different registered pension scheme (“the new scheme”);
- (b) it is agreed by—
- (i) the members' appropriate administering authority,
- (ii) the members' Scheme employers (if different), and
- (iii) the trustees or managers of the new scheme,
that a payment should be made under this regulation; and
- (c) the members—
- (i) agree in writing that payment should be made instead of any payment which they otherwise might require to be made under Chapter 4 or 5 of Part 4 of the Pension Schemes Act 1993, and
- (ii) waive any rights they might have under those Chapters by virtue of the cessation of their active membership.
- (2) The appropriate administering authority must not give its agreement under paragraph (1)(b) unless it is satisfied that the rights that each of the members will acquire under the new scheme are at least equivalent to those which would have obtained if a transfer value had been paid to the same scheme under Chapter 4 or 5 of Part 4 of the Pensions Schemes Act 1993, as they apply as modified by these Regulations (assuming in any case where a member would not be entitled to such a payment that the member was so entitled).
- (3) The appropriate administering authority must provide each member with sufficient information in writing to check that the matters of which the authority must be satisfied under paragraph (2) are satisfied, before the member agrees as mentioned in paragraph (1)(c).
- (4) The appropriate administering authority must—
- (a) set aside (whether in cash or in assets or both) such part of the appropriate fund (“the transfer payment”) as an actuary appointed by the authority and an actuary appointed by the trustees or managers of the new schemes for the purpose may agree as appropriate for the acquisition of such rights in that scheme as they may so agree; and
- (b) pay or transfer it to the trustees or managers of the new scheme for the benefit of the relevant members.
- (5) The appropriate administering authority must certify to the new scheme's trustees or managers the amount included in the transfer payment which represents each member's contributions and interest on them.
- (6) Where a transfer payment is to be or has been made under this regulation, no other payment or transfer of assets shall be made from the pension fund by reason of membership covered by the transfer payment.
- (7) Paragraph (6) overrides anything to the contrary in these Regulations.
- (8) This regulation is subject to regulation 10(6) of the Local Government Pension Scheme (Amendment) (No. 3) Regulations 2023 (transfer payments out of the fund before 1st October 2023).
Calculation of amount of transfer payment
99
- (1) The amount of the transfer payment to be paid under regulation 98 (bulk transfers) is the amount determined by an actuary appointed by the members' appropriate administering authority to be equal to the value at the date those members join the new scheme, of the actual and potential liabilities payable from its fund which have then accrued in respect of the members and the persons who are or may become entitled to benefits under the Scheme through them.
- (2) The actuary may make such adjustments as are thought fit in calculating that amount and in particular as respects the period from that date to the date of actual payment of the transfer value.
- (2A) The actuary must take into account the member’s provisional assumed benefits and provisional underpin amount, calculated in relation to the member in accordance with regulations 4I and 4J of the 2014 Regulations.
- (3) The actuary must specify in the valuation the actuarial assumptions used in making it.
- (4) The Scheme employer shall bear the costs of determining the appropriate part of the fund and apportioning the fund.
- (5) But if there is more than one Scheme employer involved, each shall bear such part of the costs as the actuary determines to be appropriate.
Inward transfers of pension rights
100
- (1) An active member with relevant pension rights may request the appropriate administering authority to accept a transfer value for some or all of those rights from the relevant transferor.
- (2) Relevant pension rights are—
- (a) accrued rights under a registered pension scheme other than rights to benefits under the scheme which are attributable (directly or indirectly) to a pension credit; and
- (b) accrued rights under a European pensions institution.
- (3) Accrued rights under a registered pension scheme include rights to preserved benefits and rights appropriately secured under section 19 of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 .
- (4) The relevant transferor is the trustees or managers of the scheme under which the transferring person's relevant pension rights arise.
- (5) But the relevant transferor for the rights specified in paragraph (3) is the trustees and managers of the scheme, or the insurance company, to which a payment in respect of the person's accrued rights has been made.
- (6) A request from a transferring person under paragraph (1) must be made by notice in writing given to the appropriate administering authority and the Scheme employer before the expiry of the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which the person first became an active member in an employment (or such longer period as the Scheme employer and administering authority may allow).
- (7) Where a request under paragraph (1) is duly made, the administering authority may accept the transfer value and credit it to its pension fund.
- (8) Where a relevant transfer is a Club Transfer, the administering authority must comply with the provisions in the Club Memorandum in relation to that transfer.
Effect of acceptance of transfer value
101
- (1) Where a transfer value has been accepted under regulation 100 (inward transfer of pension rights), the administering authority must credit the active member's pension account with the appropriate amount of earned pension.
- (2) The appropriate amount of earned pension for the purposes of paragraph (1) is calculated—
- (a) in the case of a Club Transfer, in accordance with the Club Memorandum; and
- (b) in any other case in accordance with actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State.
EU scheme transfers
102
- (1) The persons mentioned in paragraph (2) are entitled to such rights under the Scheme as are specified in actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State.
- (2) Those persons are—
- (a) a person who became employed by an EU institution after having been employed in local government service; or
- (b) a surviving spouse, civil partner, cohabiting partner, dependant or child of such a person.
- (3) In this regulation—
- (a) “EU institution” means a body treated as one of the EU's institutions for the purposes of the European Union's scheme; ...
- (b) “the European Union's scheme” means the pension scheme provided for officials and other servants of the European Union in accordance with regulations adopted by the Council of the European Union; and
- (c) “local government service” includes employment in respect of which a person satisfies the conditions in regulation 3(1)(b).
Changes of administering authority
103
- (1) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), this regulation applies where—
- (a) an administering authority becomes an active member's appropriate administering authority;
- (b) immediately before it does so, another administering authority was that member's appropriate administering authority; ...
- (c) in a case where a member has the option of aggregating the past period of membership with the current period of membership, the member has exercised the option to aggregate those periods; and
- (d) in a case where a member has the option of not aggregating a past period of membership with the current period of membership, the member has not exercised the option of retaining separate benefits
- (2) An administering authority which has ceased to be a member's appropriate administering authority must make a transfer value payment to the member's new appropriate administering authority in accordance with actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State.
- (3) Where paragraph (2) applies as respects 10 or more members by virtue of a single event, the amount of the payment under that paragraph shall be determined by agreement between an actuary appointed by the administering authority by which the payment must be made and an actuary appointed by the administering authority to which it must be made.
- (4) Where the actuaries cannot agree on the amount within 12 months of the date of transfer, or where there is more than one date of transfer, the date of the last transfer which relates to the single event—
- (a) the matter shall be referred to a third actuary, chosen by agreement between the actuaries, or in default of agreement, by the President of the Institute and Faculty of Actuaries; and
- (b) that actuary's determination shall be final.
- (5) The costs of determining the amount to be transferred shall be paid in equal shares by the fund held by the member's former appropriate administering authority and the fund held by the member's new appropriate administering authority.
- (6) Any payment under paragraph (2) must be credited to the new appropriate administering authority's fund.
- (7) This regulation does not apply where a member enters an employment in local government service (including employment in respect of which the member satisfies the conditions in regulation 3(1)(b)) which is concurrent with another in which the member is also an active member.
- (8) This regulation does not apply where a member’s administering authority has changed in the circumstances described in regulation 104(1) (change of administering authority in connection with probation service arrangements).
SCHEDULE 1 — Interpretation
- “active member” means a person who is in an employment, and— paying contributions to the Scheme, treated as paying contributions to the Scheme, or absent from that employment for one of the reasons mentioned in regulation 11;
- “actuarial guidance issued by the Secretary of State” means guidance identified by the Secretary of State as such which has been issued in accordance with regulation 2(3);
- “additional maternity or adoption leave” means leave under section 73 or 75B of the Employment Rights Act 1996[^f00056];
- “additional paternity leave” means leave under the Additional Paternity Leave Regulations 2010[^f00057];
- “additional pension” means pension under these Regulations other than earned pension;
- “administering authority” means a body listed in Part 1 of Schedule 3 which is required to hold a fund for the purposes of these Regulations;
- “admission agreement” means an agreement between an administering authority and an admission body that named individuals, or all or any specified class of the admission body’s employees, may be members of the Scheme;
- “admission body” has the meaning given in paragraph 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 2;
- “amount of accrued pension” means the earned pension in a member’s pension account adjusted to take account of any revaluation adjustment applicable;
- “amount of pension payable” means the earned and additional pension in a member’s pension account adjusted to take account of any revaluation adjustment, index rate adjustment, commutation amount or pension account adjustment applicable;
- “annual allowance charge” has the meaning given to that expression by section 227 of the Finance Act 2004[^f00058];
- “assumed pensionable pay” has the meaning given by regulation 21;
- “automatic enrolment date” means the automatic enrolment date within the meaning of section 3 of the Pensions Act 2008[^f00059];
- “automatic re-enrolment date” means the automatic re-enrolment date chosen by a member’s employer in accordance with section 5 of the Pensions Act 2008[^f00060] and regulation 12 of the Occupational and Personal Pensions Schemes (Automatic Enrolment) Regulations 2010[^f00061] for those of its eligible jobholders who are not active members (or the date the employer would have chosen if the employer does not have any such employees);
- “AVC” means a payment of additional voluntary contributions made under regulation 17;
- “base rate” means the base rate for the time being quoted by the reference banks or, where there is for the time being more than one such base rate, the rate which, when the base rate quoted by each bank is ranked in a descending sequence of seven, is fourth in the sequence;
- “benefit crystallisation event” has the meaning given by section 216 of the Finance Act 2004[^f00062];
- “child-related leave” means— ordinary adoption leave; ordinary maternity leave; additional maternity or adoption leave during which the member receives some pensionable pay; paternity leave; or additional paternity leave during which the member receives some pensionable pay.
- “children’s pension” means a pension payable to an eligible child in accordance with regulation 42, 45 or 48;
- “commutation amount” means the amount of pension a member has elected to give up in return for a lump sum in accordance with regulation 33;
- “cohabiting partner” means a person whom the appropriate administering authority is satisfied fulfils the following conditions— the person (P) has fulfilled the condition in paragraph (b) for a continuous period of at least 2 years on the date the member (M) died, and the condition is that— M is able to marry, or form a civil partnership with P, M and P are living together as if they were husband and wife or as if they were civil partners, neither M nor P is living with a third person as if they were husband and wife or as if they were civil partners, and either P is financially dependent on M, or M and P are financially interdependent;
- “deferred member” has the meaning given by regulation 6;
- “deferred payment enhancement” means the amount by which a member’s entitlement is increased pursuant to regulation 30(4) or (11);
- “deferred pensioner member” has the meaning given by regulation 6;
- “dependent” in relation to a person means that in the opinion of the administering authority, at the date of the member’s death— the person was financially dependent on the member, the person’s financial relationship with the member was one of mutual dependence, or the person was dependent on the member because of physical or mental impairment;
- “early payment reduction” means the amount by which a member’s entitlement is reduced pursuant to regulation 30(5), (6) or (12);
- “earned pension” means pension accrued from the member’s pensionable pay pursuant to regulation 23(4) or (5) or credited pursuant to regulation 101(1) (effect of acceptance of transfer value);
- “eligible child”, in relation to a deceased member, means— a natural or adopted child of a member who meets any of conditions A to C and who was born before, on, or in the case of a natural child, within 12 months of the member’s death; or a step-child or child accepted by the deceased as a member of the family (excluding a child sponsored by the member through a registered charity) who— meets any of conditions A to C; and was dependent on the member at the date of death. Condition A is that the person is aged under 18. Condition B is that the person is in full-time education or vocational training and has not reached the age of 23 (but an administering authority may continue to treat a person as fulfilling Condition B notwithstanding any break in a course of education or vocational training, although the person does not fulfil Condition B during such a break). Condition C is that the person is unable to engage in gainful employment because of physical or mental impairment and either— has not reached the age of 23; or the impairment is in the opinion of an IRMP likely to be permanent and the person was dependent on the member at the date of the member’s death because of that physical or mental impairment.
- “European pensions institution” has the same meaning as in section 293(8) of the Pensions Act 2004[^f00063];
- “gainful employment” means paid employment for not less than 30 hours in each week for a period of not less than 12 months;
- “index rate adjustment” means the percentage increase that would apply if the balance in the member’s account were a pension in payment eligible for increase under the Pensions (Increase) Act 1971[^f00064];
- “IRMP” means an independent registered medical practitioner who is registered with the General Medical Council and— holds a diploma in occupational health medicine (D Occ Med) or an equivalent qualification issued by a competent authority in an EEA state; and for the purposes of this definition, “competent authority” has the meaning given by section 55(1) of the Medical Act 1983[^f00065]; or is an Associate, a Member or a Fellow of the Faculty of Occupational Medicine or an equivalent institution of an EEA state;
- “joint liability amount” has the meaning given to that expression by section 237B(3) of the Finance Act 2004[^f00066];
- “local government service” means an employment by virtue of which the person employed is or has been a member of the Scheme;
- “membership” is to be construed in accordance with section 124(1) of the Pensions Act 1995[^f00067]
- “normal pension age” means the pensionable age of a person as specified from time to time in Schedule 4 to the Pensions Act 1995[^f00068], or if higher, age 65.
- “occupational pension scheme” has the meaning given by section 1 of the Pensions Schemes Act 1993[^f00069];
- “ordinary adoption leave” means leave under section 75A of the Employment Rights Act 1996[^f00070];
- “ordinary maternity leave” means leave under section 71 of the Employment Rights Act 1996;
- “partner” in relation to an active member means a spouse, civil partner or cohabiting partner;
- “paternity leave” means leave under regulation 4 or 8 of the Paternity and Adoption Leave Regulations 2002[^f00071];
- “payment period” means a period of service to which an employee’s wages or salary payments relate;
- “pensionable age” has the meaning given in section 181 of the Pension Schemes Act 1993;
- “pensionable pay” has the meaning given by regulation 20 but if the circumstances specified in regulation 21(2) apply, references in these Regulations to a member’s pensionable pay are references to that member’s assumed pensionable pay;
- “pension account” means an account of the description in regulation 22.
- “pension credit” means a credit under section 29(1)(b) of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999[^f00072];
- “pension credit member” has the meaning given by regulation 8(1);
- “pension debit” means a debit under section 29(1)(a) of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999;
- “pensioner member” has the meaning given by regulation 7(1);
- “pensions board” means a board or committee established by an administering authority to discharge functions under regulation 53(4);
- “pension sharing order” means any provision or order specified in section 28 of the Welfare Reform and Pensions Act 1999;
- “Pensions Regulator” means the body corporate established under section 1 of the Pensions Act 2004[^f00073]
- “permanently incapable” means that the member will, more likely than not, be incapable until at the earliest, the member’s normal pension age;
- “public service pension scheme” has the meaning given by section 1 of the Pension Schemes Act 1993[^f00074];
- “qualifying recognised overseas pension scheme” has the meaning given by section 169(2) of the Finance Act 2004[^f00075];
- “qualifying service for a period of two years” has the meaning given by regulation 3(7);
- “reference banks” means the seven largest persons for the time being who— have permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000[^f00076] to accept deposits; are incorporated in the United Kingdom and carry on there a regulated activity of accepting deposits; and quote a base rate in sterling, and for the purposes of this definition, the size of the person at any time is to be determined by reference to the gross assets denominated in sterling of that person, together with any subsidiary (as defined in section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006[^f00077]), as shown in the audited end-of-year accounts last published before that time;
- “registered pension scheme” has the same meaning as in section 150(2) of the Finance Act 2004[^f00078];
- “reserve forces pay” means the total of— pay for performing relevant reserve forces service (including marriage, family and similar allowances), and any payments under Part 5 of the Reserve and Auxiliary Forces (Protection of Civil Interests) Act 1951[^f00079];
- “reserve forces service leave” means absence from duty because of being called out or recalled for permanent service in Her Majesty’s armed forces pursuant to a call-out notice served, or a call-out or recall order made, under the Reserve Forces Act 1996[^f00080];
- “retirement pension” includes earned pension and additional pension;
- “revaluation adjustment” means the percentage specified in the relevant Treasury order made under section 9(2) of the Public Service Pensions Act 2013[^f00081] which is to be applied to the sum in a pension account at the beginning of the next scheme year;
- “the Scheme” means the scheme established by these Regulations;
- “Scheme employer” means a body listed in Schedule 2 employing an employee who is eligible to be a member and includes an admission body;
- “Scheme employer’s consent” includes the consent of the appropriate administering authority in circumstances where the member’s former employer is no longer a Scheme employer;
- “Scheme employment” means an employment by virtue of which a person is entitled to be a member of this Scheme;
- “Scheme pays election” means a member giving the administering authority notice of joint and several liability under section 237B of the Finance Act 2004[^f00082] in respect of the member’s annual allowance charge;
- “Scheme year” means a period of one year beginning with 1st April and ending with 31st March;
- “statutory pay” means any statutory maternity, paternity or adoption pay payable under the Social Security Contributions and Benefits Act 1992[^f00083];
- “survivor member” means a person entitled to a survivor pension or a children’s pension;
- “survivor pension” means a pension payable under regulations 41, 42, 44, 45, 47 or 48;
- “SVAVC” means an arrangement established under regulation 17 to which both the Scheme employer and the active member contribute;
- “Tier 1 benefits” has the meaning given by regulation 35(5) calculated in accordance with regulation 39;
- “Tier 2 benefits” has the meaning given by regulation 35(6) calculated in accordance with regulation 39;
- “Tier 3 benefits” has the meaning given by regulation 35(7) calculated in accordance with regulation 39;
- “trade dispute” has the meaning given in section 218 of the Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992[^f00084];
- “transferred in benefit” means a benefit in a member’s pension account deriving from a transfer value payment;
- “transfer value payment” means a payment made from the Scheme to another registered pension scheme or qualifying recognised overseas pension scheme, or a payment received by the Scheme from a registered pension scheme or from a European pensions institution.
SCHEDULE 2 — Scheme employers
PART 1
1
In England, a county council, a district council, a London borough council, the Greater London Authority, the Common Council of the City of London and the Council of the Isles of Scilly.
2
In Wales, a county council or a county borough council.
3
A joint board, body or committee appointed under any Act or statutory order or statutory scheme, of which all the constituent authorities are councils of a description in paragraph 1 or 2 or a combination of such councils.
4
A Mayoral development corporation within the meaning of section 198 of the Localism Act 2011[^f00085].
5
A fire and rescue authority within the meaning of the Fire and Rescue Services Act 2004[^f00086].
6
A police and crime commissioner.
7
A chief constable within the meaning of section 2 of the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011[^f00087].
8
The Commission for Local Administration in England.
9
A probation trust established under section 5 of the Offender Management Act 2007[^f00088] or a National Probation Service local board.
10
The Chichester Harbour Conservancy.
11
The Lee Valley Regional Park Authority.
12
An integrated transport authority within the meaning of Part 5 of the Local Transport Act 2008[^f00089].
13
The Broads Authority.
14
A further education corporation, a sixth form college corporation or a higher education corporation within the meaning of section 90 of the Further and Higher Education Act 1992 .
15
The London Pensions Fund Authority.
16
The South Yorkshire Pensions Authority.
17
The Environment Agency.
18
A National Park Authority established under Part 3 of the Environment Act 1995 .
19
An Education Action Forum within the meaning of section 11 of the School Standards and Framework Act 1998 .
20
A proprietor of an Academy within the meaning of section 579 (general interpretation) of the Education Act 1996 who has entered into Academy arrangements within the meaning of section 1 (academy arrangements) of the Academies Act 2010 .
21
A body set up by a local housing authority as a housing management company to exercise management functions of the authority under an agreement approved by the appropriate minister under section 27 of the Housing Act 1985 .
22
The Valuation Tribunal Service established under section 105 of the Local Government Act 2003 and the Valuation Tribunal for Wales established under regulation 4 of the Valuation Tribunal for Wales Regulations 2010 .
23
A conservation board established under section 86 of the Countryside and Rights of Way Act 2000 .
PART 2
1
The Board of Governors of the Museum of London.
2
A body (other than a body listed in Part 1 of this Schedule) which is—
- (a) a precepting authority within the meaning of section 69 of the Local Government Finance Act 1992[^f00099] (interpretation),
- (b) a levying body within the meaning of section 74 of the Local Government Finance Act 1988[^f00100] (levies), or
- (c) a body to which section 75 of that Act (special levies) applies.
3
A passenger transport executive.
4
An institution designated by an order under section 129 of the Education Reform Act 1988[^f00101].
5
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