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The Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017

Type Statutory-Instrument

Publication 2026-06-30

Last updated 2026-07-03

State In force

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Source legislation.gov.uk

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Made: at 9.20 a.m. on 22nd June 2017

Laid before Parliament: at 4.30 p.m. on 22nd June 2017

Coming into force: 26th June 2017

The Treasury are designated for the purposes of section 2(2) of the European Communities Act 1972 in relation to the prevention of money laundering and terrorist financing.

The Treasury in exercise of the powers conferred by section 2(2) of that Act and by sections 168(4)(b), 402(1)(b), 417(1) and 428(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 , make the following Regulations.

PART 1 — Introduction

Citation and commencement

1

(1) These Regulations may be cited as the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017.

(2) These Regulations come into force on 26th June 2017.

Prescribed regulations

2

These Regulations are prescribed for the purposes of sections 168(4)(b) (appointment of persons to carry out investigations in particular cases) and 402(1)(b) (power of the FCA to institute proceedings for certain other offences) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 .

General interpretation

3

(1) In these Regulations—

“Annex 1 financial institution” has the meaning given by regulation 55(2);

“appropriate body” means any body which regulates or is representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by a relevant person;

“art market participant” has the meaning given by regulation 14(1)(d);

“auction platform” has the meaning given by regulation 14(1)(c);

“auditor” (except in regulation 31(4)) has the meaning given by regulation 11(a);

“authorised cryptoasset firm” means an authorised person who is authorised to carry on a regulated activity specified by Chapter 2B (cryptoassets) of Part 2 (specified activities) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001;

“authorised person” means a person who is authorised for the purposes of FSMA;

“the FCA” means the Financial Conduct Authority;

“beneficial owner”—in the case of a body corporate or partnership, has the meaning given by regulation 5;in the case of a trust or similar arrangement, or the estate of a deceased person in the course of administration, has the meaning given by regulation 6;in any other case, has the meaning given by regulation 6(9);

“body corporate”—includes—a body corporate incorporated under the laws of the United Kingdom or any part of the United Kingdom, anda body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;but does not include—a corporation sole, ora partnership that, whether or not a legal person, is not regarded as a body corporate under the law by which it is governed;

“bill payment service provider” means an undertaking which provides a payment service enabling the payment of utility and other household bills;

“branch”, except where the context otherwise requires, means a place of business that forms a legally dependent part of the entity in question and conducts directly all or some of the operations inherent in its business;

“business relationship” has the meaning given by regulation 4;

“the capital requirements regulation” means Regulation (EU) No. 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 June 2013 on prudential requirements for credit institutions and investment firms;

“cash” means notes, coins or travellers' cheques, in any currency;

“casino” has the meaning given by regulation 14(1)(b);

“the Commissioners” means the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs;

“contract of long-term insurance” means any contract falling within Part 2 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 ;

“correspondent relationship” has the meaning given by regulation 34(4);

“credit institution” has the meaning given by regulation 10(1);

“cryptoasset business” has the meaning given by regulation 64B;

“cryptoasset exchange provider” has the meaning given by regulation 14A(1);

“custodian wallet provider” has the meaning given by regulation 14A(2);

“customer due diligence measures” means the measures required by regulation 28, and where relevant, those required by regulations 29 and 33 to 37;

“the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act);

“Department for the Economy” means the Department for the Economy in Northern Ireland;

“designated supervisory authority” has the meaning given by regulation 76(8);

“document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded;

“electronic money” has the meaning given by regulation 2(1) of the Electronic Money Regulations 2011 ;

“electronic money institution” has the meaning given by regulation 2(1) of the Electronic Money Regulations 2011;

“electronic money issuer” has the meaning given in regulation 2(1) of the Electronic Money Regulations 2011;

“eligible Scottish partnership” has the meaning given in regulation 3 of the Scottish Partnerships (Register of People with Significant Control) Regulations 2017 (key terms) ;

“the emission allowance auctioning regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 1031/2010 of 12th November 2010 on the timing, administration and other aspects of auctioning of greenhouse gas emission allowances pursuant to Directive 2003/87/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council establishing a scheme for greenhouse gas emission allowances trading within the Community ;

“enactment” includes—an enactment contained in subordinate legislation;an enactment contained in, or in an instrument made under, an Act of the Scottish Parliament;an enactment contained in, or in an instrument made under, a Measure or Act of the National Assembly for Wales; andan enactment contained in, or in an instrument made under, Northern Ireland legislation;

“enhanced customer due diligence measures” means the customer due diligence measures required under regulations 33 to 35;

“estate agent” has the meaning given by regulation 13(1);

“external accountant” (except in regulation 31(4)) has the meaning given by regulation 11(c);

“financial institution” has the meaning given by regulation 10(2);

“firm” means any entity that, whether or not a legal person, is not an individual and includes a body corporate and a partnership or other unincorporated association;

“fourth money laundering directive” means Directive 2015/849/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20th May 2015 on the prevention of the use of the financial system for the purposes of money laundering or terrorist financing , as amended by Directive 2018/843 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 30th May 2018;

“FSMA” means the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 ;

“funds transfer regulation” means Regulation 2015/847/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20th May 2015 on information accompanying transfers of funds ;

“group” has the meaning given by section 421 (group) of FSMA ;

“high value dealer” has the meaning given by regulation 14(1)(a);

“independent legal professional” has the meaning given by regulation 12(1);

“insolvency practitioner” has the meaning given by regulation 11(b);

“law enforcement authority” has the meaning given by regulation 44(10);

“letting agent” has the meaning given by regulation 13(3);

“local weights and measures authority” has the meaning given by section 69 of the Weights and Measures Act 1985 (local weights and measures authorities) ;

“manager”, in relation to a firm, means a person who has control, authority or responsibility for managing the business of that firm, and includes a nominated officer;

“markets in financial instruments directive” means Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15th May 2014 on markets in financial instruments ;

“markets in financial instruments regulation” means Regulation (EU) 600/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments (as that Regulation forms part of domestic law under section 3 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018);

“money laundering” has the meaning given by section 340(11) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 ;

“money service business” means an undertaking which by way of business operates a currency exchange office, transmits money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means or cashes cheques which are made payable to customers;

“the NCA” means the National Crime Agency;

“nominated officer” means a person who is nominated to receive disclosures under Part 3 (terrorist property) of the Terrorism Act 2000 or Part 7 (money laundering) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002;

“notice” means a notice in writing;

“occasional transaction” means a transaction which is not carried out as part of a business relationship;

“officer”, except in Part 8 and Schedule 5—in relation to a body corporate, means—a director, secretary, chief executive, member of the committee of management, or a person purporting to act in such a capacity, oran individual who is a controller of the body, or a person purporting to act as a controller;in relation to an unincorporated association, means any officer of the association or any member of its governing body, or a person purporting to act in such a capacity; andin relation to a partnership, means a partner, and any manager, secretary or similar officer of the partnership, or a person purporting to act in such a capacity;

“ongoing monitoring” (except where the context otherwise requires) means at least the measures described in regulation 28(11);

“payment services” has the meaning given by regulation 2(1) of the Payment Services Regulations 2017;

“payment service provider” has the meaning given in regulation 2(1) of the Payment Services Regulations 2017;

“politically exposed person” or “PEP” has the meaning given by regulation 35(12);

“the PRA” means the Prudential Regulation Authority;

“PRA-authorised person” has the meaning given by section 2B(5) of FSMA ;

“proliferation financing” has the meaning given by regulation 16A(9);

“regulated activity” has the meaning given by section 22 of FSMA (regulated activities);

“regulated market”— within the United Kingdom, means a UK regulated market, as defined by Article 2(1)(13A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation; and outside the United Kingdom, means—within the EEA, an EU regulated market, as defined by Article 2(1)(13B) of the markets in financial instruments regulation; oroutside the EEA, a regulated financial market which subjects companies whose securities are admitted to trading to disclosure obligations which are equivalent to the specified disclosure obligations;

“relevant parent undertaking” means a relevant person which is a parent undertaking;

“relevant person” means a person to whom, in accordance with regulation 8, Parts 1 to 6 , 7A and 8 to 11 of these Regulations apply;

“relevant requirement” has the meaning given by regulation 75;

“self-regulatory organisation” means one of the professional bodies listed in Schedule 1 to these Regulations;

“senior management” means an officer or employee of the relevant person with sufficient knowledge of the relevant person's money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing risk exposure, and of sufficient authority, to take decisions affecting its risk exposure;

“specified disclosure obligations” means—disclosure obligations set out in Articles 17 and 19 of Regulation (EU) No 596/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16th April 2014 on market abuse ; disclosure obligations imposed as a result of rules made by the FCA by virtue of regulation 14 of the Public Offers and Admissions to Trading Regulations 2024; disclosure obligations consistent with the requirements in sections 4 and 5.5 of, and rules 6.1.1 to 6.1.15 in, the Disclosure Guidance and Transparency Rules source book made by the FCA under section 89A of FSMA as those rules have effect on IP completion day; and...

“specified investment cryptoasset” has the meaning given by article 3 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (interpretation);

“specified investment cryptoasset firm” means an authorised person who—has permission under Part 4A of FSMA to carry on a regulated activity other than one specified by Chapter 2B (cryptoassets) of Part 2 (specified activities) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001, andcarries on activity under that permission in relation to specified investment cryptoassets;

“supervisory authority” in relation to—any relevant person, means the supervisory authority specified for such a person by regulation 7;any payment service provider, means the transfer of funds supervisory authority;

“supervisory functions” means the functions given to a supervisory authority under these Regulations;

“tax adviser” (except in regulation 31(4)) has the meaning given by regulation 11(d);

“telecommunication, digital and IT payment service provider” has the meaning given by regulation 53;

“terrorist financing” means (except where the context otherwise requires) an act which constitutes an offence under—section 15 (fund-raising), 16 (use and possession), 17 (funding arrangements), 18 (money laundering) or 63 (terrorist finance: jurisdiction) of the Terrorism Act 2000 ;paragraph 7(2) or (3) of Schedule 3 (freezing orders: offences) to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 ; regulations 8 to 13, 25 or 26 of the ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida (United Nations Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 or regulations 11 to 16 of the Counter-Terrorism (International Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019;; or any of regulations 11 to 16 of the Counter-Terrorism (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019;...

“third country” means a state other than the United Kingdom;

“transfer of funds supervisory authority” means the supervisory authority specified for payment service providers in regulation 62;

“trust or company service provider” has the meaning given in regulation 12(2).

“UK auctioning regulations” means the Greenhouse Gas Emissions Trading Scheme Auctioning Regulations 2021;

“the UK GDPR” has the same meaning as in Parts 5 to 7 of the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3(10) and (14) of that Act);

“UK regulated market” means a recognised investment exchange within the meaning of section 285(1)(a) of FSMA, which is not an overseas investment exchange within the meaning of section 313(1) of FSMA.

(2) In these Regulations—

(a) references to an amount in sterling includes reference to an equivalent amount in any currency;

(b) the equivalent in another currency on a particular day of a sum expressed in sterling is determined by converting the sum in sterling into its equivalent in ... that other currency using the London closing exchange rate for sterling and the relevant currency for the previous working day;

(d) references to business being carried on in the United Kingdom, or a person carrying on business in the United Kingdom, are to be read in accordance with regulation 9;

(e) references to a person having a “qualifying relationship” with a PRA-authorised person, or with an authorised person are to be read in accordance with section 415B(4) of FSMA ;

(f) “parent undertaking” and “subsidiary undertaking” have the same meaning as in the Companies Acts (see section 1162 of and Schedule 7 to, the Companies Act 2006 (parent and subsidiary undertaking) ).

Meaning of business relationship

4

(1) For the purpose of these Regulations, “business relationship” means a business, professional or commercial relationship between a relevant person and a customer, which—

(a) arises out of the business of the relevant person, and

(b) is expected by the relevant person, at the time when contact is established, to have an element of duration.

(2) A relationship where the relevant person is asked to provide one or more of the services described in regulation 12(2)(a), (ab), (b) or (d) is to be treated as a business relationship for the purpose of these Regulations, whether or not the relationship is otherwise expected to have an element of duration.

(3) For the purposes of these Regulations, an estate agent is to be treated as entering into a business relationship with a purchaser (as well as with a seller), at the point when the purchaser's offer is accepted by the seller.

Meaning of beneficial owner: bodies corporate or partnership

5

(1) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a body corporate which is not a company whose securities are listed on a regulated market, means—

(a) any individual who exercises ultimate control over the management of the body corporate;

(b) any individual who ultimately owns or controls (in each case whether directly or indirectly), including through bearer share holdings or by other means, more than 25% of the shares or voting rights in the body corporate; or

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(c), an individual controls a body corporate if—

(a) the body corporate is a company or a limited liability partnership and that individual satisfies one or more of the conditions set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1A to the Companies Act 2006 (people with significant control over a company) ; or

(b) the body corporate would be a subsidiary undertaking of the individual (if the individual was an undertaking) under section 1162 (parent and subsidiary undertakings) of the Companies Act 2006 read with Schedule 7 to that Act.

(3) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), means any individual who—

(a) ultimately is entitled to or controls (in each case whether directly or indirectly) more than 25% share of the capital or profits of the partnership or more than 25% of the voting rights in the partnership;

(b) satisfies one or more the conditions set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Scottish Partnerships (Register of People with Significant Control) Regulations 2017 (references to people with significant control over an eligible Scottish partnership) ; or

(4) In this regulation “limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000 .

Meaning of beneficial owner: trusts, similar arrangements and others

6

(1) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a trust, means each of the following—

(a) the settlor;

(b) the trustees;

(d) where the individuals (or some of the individuals) benefiting from the trust have not been determined, the class of persons in whose main interest the trust is set up, or operates;

(e) any individual who has control over the trust.

(2) In paragraph (1)(e), “control” means a power (whether exercisable alone, jointly with another person or with the consent of another person) under the trust instrument or by law to—

(a) dispose of, advance, lend, invest, pay or apply trust property;

(b) vary or terminate the trust;

(d) appoint or remove trustees or give another individual control over the trust;

(e) direct, withhold consent to or veto the exercise of a power mentioned in sub-paragraphs (a) to (d).

(3) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a foundation or other legal arrangement similar to a trust, means those individuals who hold equivalent or similar positions to those set out in paragraph (1).

(4) For the purposes of paragraph (1)—

(a) where an individual is the beneficial owner of a body corporate which is entitled to a specified interest in the capital of the trust property or which has control over the trust, the individual is to be regarded as entitled to the interest or having control over the trust; and

(b) an individual (“P”) does not have control solely as a result of—

(i) P's consent being required in accordance with section 32(1)(c) (power of advancement) of the Trustee Act 1925 ;

(ii) any discretion delegated to P under section 34 (power of investment and delegation) of the Pensions Act 1995 ;

(iii) the power to give a direction conferred on P by section 19(2) (appointment and retirement of trustee at instance of beneficiaries) of the Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 ; or

(iv) the power exercisable collectively at common law to vary or extinguish a trust where the beneficiaries under the trust are of full age and capacity and (taken together) absolutely entitled to the property subject to the trust (or, in Scotland, have a full and unqualified right to the fee).

(5) For the purposes of paragraph (4), “specified interest” means a vested interest which is—

(a) in possession or in remainder or reversion (or in Scotland, in fee); and

(b) defeasible or indefeasible.

(6) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in relation to an estate of a deceased person in the course of administration, means—

(a) in England and Wales and Northern Ireland, the executor, original or by representation, or administrator for the time being of a deceased person;

(b) in Scotland, the executor for the purposes of the Executors (Scotland) Act 1900 .

(7) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a legal entity or legal arrangement which does not fall within regulation 5 or paragraphs (1), (3) or (6) of this regulation, means—

(a) any individual who benefits from the property of the entity or arrangement;

(b) where the individuals who benefit from the entity or arrangement have yet to be determined, the class of persons in whose main interest the entity or arrangement is set up or operates;

(8) For the purposes of paragraph (7), where an individual is the beneficial owner of a body corporate which benefits from or exercises control over the property of the entity or arrangement, the individual is to be regarded as benefiting from or exercising control over the property of the entity or arrangement.

(9) In these Regulations, “beneficial owner”, in any other case, means the individual who ultimately owns or controls the entity or arrangement or on whose behalf a transaction is being conducted.

Supervisory authorities

7

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the following bodies are supervisory authorities in relation to relevant persons—

(a) the FCA is the supervisory authority for—

(i) credit and financial institutions (including money service businesses) which are authorised persons but not excluded money service businesses;

(ii) trust or company service providers which are authorised persons;

(iii) Annex 1 financial institutions;

(iv) electronic money institutions;

(v) auction platforms;

(vi) credit unions in Northern Ireland;

(vii) recognised investment exchanges within the meaning of section 285 of FSMA (exemption for recognised investment exchanges , clearing houses and central securities depositories);

(viii) cryptoasset exchange providers;

(ix) custodian wallet providers;

(b) each of the professional bodies listed in Schedule 1 is the supervisory authority for relevant persons who are members of it, or regulated or supervised by it;

(i) high value dealers;

(ii) money service businesses which are not supervised by the FCA;

(iii) trust or company service providers which are not supervised by the FCA or one of the professional bodies listed in Schedule 1;

(iv) auditors, external accountants and tax advisers who are not supervised by one of the professional bodies listed in Schedule 1;

(v) bill payment service providers which are not supervised by the FCA;

(vi) telecommunication, digital and IT payment service providers which are not supervised by the FCA;

(vii) estate agents and letting agents which are not supervised by one of the professional bodies listed in Schedule 1;

(viii) art market participants;

(d) the Gambling Commission is the supervisory authority for casinos.

(2) Where under paragraph (1), there is more than one supervisory authority for a relevant person, the supervisory authorities may agree that one of them will act as the supervisory authority for that person.

(3) Where there has been an agreement under paragraph (2), the authority which has agreed to act as the supervisory authority must notify the relevant person or publish the agreement in such manner as it considers appropriate.

(4) Where there has not been an agreement under paragraph (2), the supervisory authorities for a relevant person must co-operate in the performance of their functions under these Regulations.

(5) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(a)(i), a money service business is an “excluded money service business” if it is an authorised person who has permission under FSMA which relates to or is connected with a contract of the kind mentioned in paragraph 23 or 23B of Schedule 2 to that Act (credit agreements and contracts for hire of goods) but does not have permission to carry on any other kind of regulated activity.

(6) Paragraph (5) must be read with—

(a) section 22 of FSMA (regulated activities) ;

(b) any relevant order under that section; and

(7) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a credit union in Northern Ireland is a credit union which is—

(a) registered under regulation 3 of the Credit Unions (Northern Ireland) Order 1985 (registration) and it is an authorised person; or

(b) registered under Part 2 of the Industrial and Provident Societies Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (registered societies) as a credit union and it is an authorised person.

PART 2 — Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing

CHAPTER 1 — Application

Application

8

(1) Parts 1 to 6 , 7A and 8 to 11 apply to the persons (“relevant persons”) acting in the course of business carried on by them in the United Kingdom, who—

(a) are listed in paragraph (2); and

(b) do not come within the exclusions set out in regulation 15.

(2) The persons listed in this paragraph are—

(a) credit institutions;

(b) financial institutions;

(d) independent legal professionals;

(e) trust or company service providers;

(f) estate agents and letting agents;

(g) high value dealers;

(h) casinos;

(i) art market participants;

(j) cryptoasset exchange providers;

(k) custodian wallet providers.

(3) Regulations 3, 7, 9, 15, 17 to 21, 24, 25, 46, 47, 50 to 52, 65 to 82, 84, 86 to 93, 101, 102 and 106 apply to an auction platform acting in the course of business carried on by it in the United Kingdom, and such an auction platform is a relevant person for the purposes of those provisions.

(3A) Regulation 29 applies to a customer provided with a pooled account (within the meaning of paragraph (10) of that regulation) by a relevant person.

(4) The definitions in regulations 10 to 14 apply for the purposes of this regulation.

Carrying on business in the United Kingdom

9

(1) For the purposes of these Regulations, a relevant person (“A”) is to be regarded as carrying on business in the United Kingdom in the cases described in this regulation even if A would not otherwise be regarded as doing so.

(2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(3) The second case is where—

(a) A's registered office (or if A does not have a registered office, A's head office) is in the United Kingdom; and

(b) the day-to-day management of the carrying on of A's business is the responsibility of—

(i) that office, or

(ii) another establishment maintained by A in the United Kingdom.

(4) The third case is where—

(a) A is a casino which provides facilities for remote gambling (within the meaning of section 4 of the Gambling Act 2005 (remote gambling) ) and—

(b) either—

(i) at least one piece of remote gambling equipment (within the meaning of section 36(4) of the Gambling Act 2005 (territorial application)) is situated in Great Britain, or

(ii) no such equipment is situated in Great Britain but the facilities provided by A are used there.

(5) For the purposes of paragraph (3)—

(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(b) it is irrelevant where the person with whom the business is carried on is situated.

Credit institutions and financial institutions

10

(1) In these Regulations, “credit institution” means—

(a) a credit institution as defined in Article 4.1(1) of the capital requirements regulation; or

(b) a branch (as defined by Article 4.1(17) of that regulation) located in the United Kingdom of an institution falling within sub-paragraph (a) (or an equivalent institution whose head office is located in a third country) wherever the institution's head office is located,

when it accepts deposits or other repayable funds from the public or grants credits for its own account (within the meaning of the capital requirements regulation), or when it bids directly in auctions in accordance with the emission allowance auctioning regulation or the UK auctioning regulations on behalf of its clients.

(2) In these Regulations, “financial institution” means—

(a) an undertaking, including a money service business, other than an institution referred to in paragraph (3), when the undertaking carries out one or more listed activity;

(b) an authorised person (within the meaning of section 31 of FSMA), who has permission under Part 4A of FSMA to carry out or effect contracts of insurance, when carrying out or effecting any contract of long-term insurance other than a reinsurance contract (an “insurance undertaking”);

(c) a person (other than a person falling within one of the exclusions to the definition of “investment firm” in article 3(1) of the Regulated Activities Order), whose regular occupation or business is the provision to other persons of an investment service or the performance of an investment activity on a professional basis, when—

(i) providing investment services or performing investment activities (within the meaning of that article); or

(ii) bidding directly in auctions in accordance with the emission allowance auctioning regulation or the UK auctioning regulations on behalf of its clients;

(d) a person falling within paragraph 1(k) of Part 1 of Schedule 3 to the Regulated Activities Order, when bidding directly in auctions in accordance with the emission allowance auctioning regulation or the UK auctioning regulations on behalf of clients of the person's main business;

(e) a collective investment undertaking, when marketing or otherwise offering its units or shares;

(f) an insurance intermediary as defined in article 33B(4) of the Regulated Activities Order, when it acts in respect of contracts of long-term insurance;

(g) a branch located in the United Kingdom of a person referred to in sub-paragraphs (a) to (f) (or an equivalent person whose head office is located in a third country), wherever the person's head office is located, when carrying out any activity mentioned in sub-paragraphs (a) to (f);

(h) the National Savings Bank;

(i) the Director of Savings, when money is raised under the auspices of the Director under the National Loans Act 1968 .

(3) For the purposes of paragraph (2)(a), the institutions referred to are—

(a) a credit institution;

(b) an undertaking whose only listed activity is as a creditor under an agreement which—

(i) falls within section 12(a) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 (debtor-creditor-supplier agreements);

(ii) provides fixed sum credit (within the meaning given in section 10(1)(b) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 (running-account credit and fixed-sum credit)) in relation to the provision of services; and

(iii) provides financial accommodation by way of deferred payment or payment by instalments over a period not exceeding 12 months;

(c) an undertaking whose only listed activity is trading for its own account in one or more of the products listed in point 7 of ... Schedule 2 where the undertaking does not have a customer (and, for this purpose, “customer” means a person other than the undertaking which is not a member of the same group as the undertaking).

(4) For the purposes of this regulation—

(a) a “listed activity” means an activity listed in points 2 to 12, 14 and 15 of ... Schedule 2;

(b) “Regulated Activities Order” means the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001.

Auditors and others

11

In these Regulations—

(a) “auditor” means any firm or individual who is—

(i) a statutory auditor within the meaning of Part 42 of the Companies Act 2006 (statutory auditors), when carrying out statutory audit work within the meaning of section 1210 of that Act (meaning of statutory auditor), or

(ii) a local auditor within the meaning of section 4(1) of the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (general requirements for audit) , when carrying out an audit required by that Act.

(b) “insolvency practitioner” means any firm or individual who acts as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986 or article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (meaning of “act as insolvency practitioner”).

(c) “external accountant” means a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides accountancy services to other persons, when providing such services.

(d) “tax adviser” means a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides material aid, or assistance or advice, in connection with the tax affairs of other persons, whether provided directly or through a third party, when providing such services.

Independent legal professionals and trust or company service providers

12

(1) In these Regulations, “independent legal professional” means a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides legal or notarial services to other persons, when participating in financial or real property transactions concerning—

(a) the buying and selling of real property or business entities;

(b) the managing of client money, securities or other assets;

(d) the organisation of contributions necessary for the creation, operation or management of companies; or

(e) the creation, operation or management of trusts, companies, foundations or similar structures,

and, for this purpose, a person participates in a transaction by assisting in the planning or execution of the transaction or otherwise acting for or on behalf of a client in the transaction.

(2) In these Regulations, “trust or company service provider” means a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides any of the following services to other persons, when that firm or practitioner is providing such services—

(a) forming a firm;

(ab) selling an off-the-shelf firm;

(b) acting, or arranging for another person to act—

(i) as a director or secretary of a company;

(ii) as a partner of a partnership; or

(iii) in a similar capacity in relation to other legal persons;

(c) providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a company, partnership or any other legal person or legal arrangement;

(d) acting, or arranging for another person to act, as—

(i) a trustee of an express trust or similar legal arrangement; or

(ii) a nominee shareholder for a person other than a company whose securities are listed on a regulated market.

(3) In this regulation, an “off-the-shelf firm” means a firm that either—

(a) does not carry on business; or

(b) carries on business but such business is not the main activity carried on by the trust or company service provider.

Estate agents and letting agents

13

(1) In these Regulations, “estate agent” means a firm or a sole practitioner, who, or whose employees, carry out estate agency work, when the work is being carried out.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1) “estate agency work” is to be read in accordance with section 1 of the Estate Agents Act 1979 (estate agency work), but for those purposes references in that section to disposing of or acquiring an interest in land are (despite anything in section 2 of that Act) to be taken to include references to disposing of or acquiring an estate or interest in land outside the United Kingdom where that estate or interest is capable of being owned or held as a separate interest.

(3) In these Regulations, “letting agent” means a firm or sole practitioner who, or whose employees, carry out letting agency work, when carrying out such work.

(4) For the purposes of paragraph (3), “letting agency work” means work—

(a) consisting of things done in response to instructions received from—

(i) a person (a “prospective landlord”) seeking to find another person to whom to let land, or

(ii) a person (a “prospective tenant”) seeking to find land to rent, and

(b) done in a case where an agreement is concluded for the letting of land—

(i) for a term of a month or more, and

(ii) at a rent which during at least part of the term is, or is equivalent to, a monthly rent of £10,000 or more.

(5) For the purposes of paragraph (3) “letting agency work” does not include the things listed in paragraph (6) when done by, or by employees of, a firm or sole practitioner if neither the firm or sole practitioner, nor any of their employees, does anything else within paragraph (4).

(6) Those things are—

(a) publishing advertisements or disseminating information;

(b) providing a means by which a prospective landlord or a prospective tenant can, in response to an advertisement or dissemination of information, make direct contact with a prospective tenant or a prospective landlord;

(d) the provision of legal or notarial services by a barrister, advocate, solicitor or other legal representative communications with whom may be the subject of a claim to professional privilege or, in Scotland, protected from disclosure in legal proceedings on grounds of confidentiality of communication.

(7) In paragraph (4) “land” includes part of a building and part of any other structure.

High value dealers, casinos, auction platforms and art market participants

14

(1) In these Regulations—

(a) “high value dealer” means a firm or sole trader who by way of business trades in goods (including an auctioneer dealing in goods), when the trader makes or receives, in respect of any transaction, a payment or payments in cash of at least £10,000 in total, whether the transaction is executed in a single operation or in several operations which appear to be linked;

(b) “casino” means the holder of a casino operating licence and, for this purpose, a “casino operating licence” has the meaning given by section 65(2)(a) of the Gambling Act 2005 (nature of licence);

(c) “auction platform” means a platform which auctions two-day spot or five-day futures, within the meanings given by regulation 2(1) of the UK auctioning regulations, when it carries out activities covered by that regulation.

(d) “art market participant” means , subject to paragraph (3), a firm or sole practitioner who—

(i) by way of business trades in, or acts as an intermediary in the sale or purchase of, works of art and the value of the transaction, or a series of linked transactions, amounts to £10,000 or more; or

(ii) is the operator of a freeport when it, or any other firm or sole practitioner, by way of business stores works of art in the freeport and the value of the works of art so stored for a person, or a series of linked persons, amounts to £10,000 or more;

(e) “freeport” means a warehouse or storage facility within an area designated by the Treasury as a special area for customs purposes pursuant to section 100A(1) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (designation of free zones) ;

(f) “work of art” means anything which, in accordance with section 21(6) to (6B) of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 (value of imported goods) , is a work of art for the purposes of section 21(5)(a) of that Act.

(2) A payment does not cease to be a “payment in cash” for the purposes of paragraph (1)(a) if cash is paid by or on behalf of the person making the payment—

(a) to a person other than the other party to the transaction for the benefit of the other party, or

(b) into a bank account for the benefit of the other party to the transaction.

(3) A firm or sole practitioner is not an art market participant for the purposes of paragraph (1)(d)(i) in relation to the sale of a work of art which is created by, or is attributable to, a member of the firm or the sole practitioner.

Cryptoasset exchange providers and custodian wallet providers

14A

(1) In these Regulations, “cryptoasset exchange provider” means a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides one or more of the following services, including where the firm or sole practitioner does so as creator or issuer of any of the cryptoassets involved, when providing such services—

(a) exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets,

(b) exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, one cryptoasset for another, or

(2) In these Regulations, “custodian wallet provider” means a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides services to safeguard, or to safeguard and administer—

(a) cryptoassets on behalf of its customers, or

(b) private cryptographic keys on behalf of its customers in order to hold, store and transfer cryptoassets,

when providing such services.

(3) For the purposes of this regulation—

(a) “cryptoasset” means a cryptographically secured digital representation of value or contractual rights that uses a form of distributed ledger technology and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically;

(b) “money” means—

(i) money in sterling,

(ii) money in any other currency, or

(iii) money in any other medium of exchange,

but does not include a cryptoasset; and

(c) in sub-paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph (1), “cryptoasset” includes a right to, or interest in, the cryptoasset.

Exclusions

15

(1) Parts 1 to 4, 6 and 8 to 11 do not apply to the following persons when carrying on any of the following activities—

(a) a registered society within the meaning of section 1 of the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014 (meaning of “registered society”) , when it—

(i) issues withdrawable share capital within the limit set by section 24 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or

(ii) accepts deposits from the public within the limit set by section 67(2) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies);

(b) a society registered under the Industrial and Provident Societies Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 , when it—

(i) issues withdrawable share capital within the limit set by section 6 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or

(ii) accepts deposits from the public within the limit set by section 7(3) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies);

(c) a person who is (or falls within a class of persons) specified in any of paragraphs 2 to 23, 26 to 38 , 40 to 49 or 58 of the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Exemption) Order 2001 , when carrying out any activity in respect of which that person is exempt;

(d) a local authority within the meaning given in article 3(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 , when carrying on an activity which would be a regulated activity for the purposes of FSMA but for article 72G of that Order ;

(e) a person who was an exempted person for the purposes of section 45 of the Financial Services Act 1986 (miscellaneous exemptions) immediately before its repeal, when exercising the functions specified in that section;

(f) a person whose main activity is that of a high value dealer, when engaging in financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis as set out in paragraph (3); or

(g) a person preparing a home report, which for these purposes means the documents prescribed for the purposes of section 98, 99(1) or 101(2) of the Housing (Scotland) Act 2006 (duties: information and others) .

(2) These Regulations do not apply to a person who falls within regulation 8 solely as a result of that person engaging in financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis as set out in paragraph (3).

(3) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(f) and (2), a person is to be considered as engaging in financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis if all the following conditions are met—

(a) the person's total annual turnover in respect of the financial activity does not exceed £100,000;

(b) the financial activity is limited in relation to any customer to no more than one transaction exceeding £1,000, whether the transaction is carried out in a single operation, or a series of operations which appear to be linked;

(d) the financial activity is ancillary and directly related to the person's main activity;

(e) the financial activity is not the transmission or remittance of money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means;

(f) the person's main activity is not that of a person falling within regulation 8(2)(a) to (f) or (h) to (k);

(g) the financial activity is provided only to customers of the main activity of the person and is not offered to the public.

(4) Chapters 2 and 3 of Part 2, and Parts 3 to 9, do not apply to—

(a) the Auditor General for Scotland;

(b) the Auditor General for Wales;

(d) the Comptroller and Auditor General;

(e) the Comptroller and Auditor General for Northern Ireland;

(f) the Official Solicitor to the Supreme Court, when acting as trustee in his or her official capacity;

(g) the Treasury Solicitor.

CHAPTER 2 — Risk assessment and controls

Risk assessment by the Treasury and Home Office

16

(1) The Treasury and the Home Office must make arrangements before 26th June 2018 for a risk assessment to be undertaken to identify, assess, understand and mitigate the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing affecting the United Kingdom (“the risk assessment”).

(2) The risk assessment must, among other things—

(a) identify any areas where relevant persons should apply enhanced customer due diligence measures, and where appropriate, specify the measures to be taken;

(b) identify, where appropriate, the sectors or areas of lower and greater risk of money laundering and terrorist financing;

(c) consider whether any rules on money laundering and terrorist financing made by a supervisory authority applying in relation to the sector it supervises are appropriate in the light of the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing applying to that sector;

(d) provide the information and analysis necessary to enable it to be used for the purposes set out in paragraph (3).

(3) The Treasury and the Home Office must ensure that the risk assessment is used to—

(a) consider the appropriate allocation and prioritisation of resources to counter money laundering and terrorist financing;

(b) consider whether the exclusions provided for in regulation 15 are being abused;

(c) consider whether providers of gambling services other than casinos should continue to be excluded from the requirements of these Regulations.

(4) For the purpose of paragraph (3)(c), a “provider of gambling services” means a person who by way of business provides facilities for gambling within the meaning of section 5 of the Gambling Act 2005 (facilities for gambling) .

(5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(6) The Treasury and the Home Office must prepare a joint report setting out, as appropriate, the findings of the risk assessment as soon as reasonably practicable after the risk assessment is completed.

(6A) The report must also set out—

(a) the institutional structure and broad procedures of the United Kingdom’s anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing regime, including the role of the financial intelligence unit, tax agencies and prosecutors;

(b) the nature of measures taken and resources allocated to counter money laundering and terrorist financing.

(7) A copy of that report must be laid before Parliament, and sent to—

(a) the PRA;

(b) the supervisory authorities;

(d) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(e) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(8) If information from the risk assessment would assist the supervisory authorities in carrying out their own money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment, the Treasury and the Home Office must, where appropriate, make that information available to those supervisory authorities, unless to do so would not be compatible with restrictions on sharing information imposed by or under —

(a) the Data Protection Act 2018 or any other enactment, or

(b) the UK GDPR.

(9) The Treasury and the Home Office must take appropriate steps to ensure that the risk assessment is kept up-to-date.

Risk assessment by the Treasury

16A

(1) The Treasury must make arrangements for a risk assessment to be undertaken to identify, assess, understand and mitigate the risks of proliferation financing affecting the United Kingdom (“the proliferation financing risk assessment”).

(2) The proliferation financing risk assessment must, among other things—

(a) identify, where appropriate, the sectors or areas of lower and greater risk of proliferation financing;

(b) provide the information and analysis necessary to enable it to be used for the purposes set out in paragraph (3).

(3) The Treasury must ensure that the proliferation financing risk assessment is used to—

(a) consider the appropriate allocation and prioritisation of resources to counter proliferation financing;

(b) consider whether the exclusions provided for in regulation 15 (exclusions) are being abused.

(4) The Treasury must prepare a report setting out, as appropriate, the findings of the proliferation financing risk assessment as soon as reasonably practicable after the proliferation financing risk assessment is completed.

(5) A copy of that report must be laid before Parliament and sent to the supervisory authorities.

(6) The Treasury must take appropriate steps to ensure that the proliferation financing risk assessment is kept up-to-date.

(7) The proliferation financing risk assessment may be included in the risk assessment made under regulation 16 (risk assessment by the Treasury and Home Office).

(8) The report referred to in paragraph (4) may be included within the joint report of the Treasury and Home Office referred to in regulation 16(6).

(9) In this regulation, “proliferation financing” means the act of providing funds or financial services for use, in whole or in part, in the manufacture, acquisition, development, export, trans-shipment, brokering, transport, transfer, stockpiling of, or otherwise in connection with the possession or use of, chemical, biological, radiological or nuclear weapons, including the provision of funds or financial services in connection with the means of delivery of such weapons and other CBRN-related goods and technology, in contravention of a relevant financial sanctions obligation.

(10) In this regulation—

“biological weapon” means a biological agent or toxin (within the meaning of section 1(1)(a) of the Biological Weapons Act 1974) in a form capable of use for hostile purposes or anything to which section 1(1)(b) of that Act applies;

“chemical weapon” has the meaning given by section 1 of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996;

“CBRN-related goods and technology” means technology (including dual-use technology) and dual-use goods used for non-legitimate purposes in connection with the matters referred to in paragraph (9);

“dual-use goods” means (a) any thing for the time being specified in Annex I of the Dual-Use Regulation, other than any thing which is dual-use technology, and (b) any tangible storage medium on which dual use technology is recorded or from which it can be derived;

“Dual-Use Regulation” means Council Regulation (EC) No 428/2009 of 5 May 2009 setting up a Community regime for the control of exports, transfer, brokering and transit of dual-use items;

“dual-use technology” means any thing for the time being specified in Annex I of the Dual-Use Regulation which is described as software or technology;

“nuclear weapon” includes a nuclear explosive device that is not intended for use as a weapon;

“radiological weapon” means a device designed to cause destruction, damage or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of radioactive material;

“relevant financial sanctions obligation” means a prohibition or requirement in regulations made under section 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 and imposed for one or more of the purposes in section 3(1) or (2) of that Act so far as it relates to compliance with a relevant UN obligation;

“relevant UN obligation” means an obligation that the UK has by virtue of a resolution adopted by the Security Council of the United Nations which relates to the prevention, suppression and disruption of the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction and the financing of such;

“technology” has the meaning given by paragraph 37 of Schedule 1 to the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018.

Risk assessment by supervisory authorities

17

(1) Each supervisory authority must identify and assess the international and domestic risks of money laundering and terrorist financing to which those relevant persons for which it is the supervisory authority (“its own sector”) are subject.

(2) In carrying out the risk assessment required under paragraph (1), the supervisory authority must take into account—

(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(d) information made available by the Treasury and the Home Office under regulation 16(8).

(3) A supervisory authority must keep an up-to-date record in writing of all the steps it has taken under paragraph (1).

(4) Each supervisory authority must develop and record in writing risk profiles for each relevant person in its own sector.

(5) A supervisory authority may prepare a single risk profile under paragraph (4) in relation to two or more relevant persons in its sector, if—

(a) the relevant persons share similar characteristics; and

(b) the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing affecting those relevant persons do not differ significantly.

(6) Where a supervisory authority has prepared a single risk profile for two or more relevant persons in its sector (a “cluster”), the supervisory authority must keep under review whether an individual risk profile should be prepared in relation to any relevant person in the cluster because sub-paragraph (a) or (b) (or both sub-paragraphs) of paragraph (5) are no longer satisfied in relation to that person.

(7) In developing the risk profiles referred to in paragraph (4), the supervisory authority must take full account of the risks that relevant persons in its own sector will not take appropriate action to identify, understand and mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing risks.

(8) Each supervisory authority must review the risk profiles developed under paragraph (4) at regular intervals and following any significant event or developments which might affect the risks to which its own sector is subject, such as—

(a) significant external events that change the nature of the money laundering or terrorist financing risks;

(b) emerging money laundering or terrorist financing risks;

(d) any changes in the way in which its own sector is operated;

(e) significant changes in regulation.

(9) If information from the risk assessment carried out under paragraph (1), or from information provided to the supervisory authority under regulation 16(8), would assist relevant persons in carrying out their own money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment, the supervisory authority must, where appropriate, make that information available to those persons, unless to do so would not be compatible with restrictions on sharing information imposed by or under —

(a) the Data Protection Act 2018 or any other enactment, or

(b) the UK GDPR.

Risk assessment by relevant persons

18

(1) A relevant person must take appropriate steps to identify and assess the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing to which its business is subject.

(2) In carrying out the risk assessment required under paragraph (1), a relevant person must take into account—

(a) information made available to them by the supervisory authority under regulations 17(9) and 47, and

(b) risk factors including factors relating to—

(i) its customers;

(ii) the countries or geographic areas in which it operates;

(iii) its products or services;

(iv) its transactions; and

(v) its delivery channels.

(3) In deciding what steps are appropriate under paragraph (1), the relevant person must take into account the size and nature of its business.

(4) A relevant person must keep an up-to-date record in writing of all the steps it has taken under paragraph (1), unless its supervisory authority notifies it in writing that such a record is not required.

(5) A supervisory authority may not give the notification referred to in paragraph (4) unless it considers that the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing applicable to the sector in which the relevant person operates are clear and understood.

(6) A relevant person must provide the risk assessment it has prepared under paragraph (1), the information on which that risk assessment was based and any record required to be kept under paragraph (4), to its supervisory authority on request.

Risk assessment by relevant persons in relation to proliferation financing

18A

(1) A relevant person must take appropriate steps to identify and assess the risks of proliferation financing to which its business is subject.

(2) In carrying out the risk assessment required under paragraph (1), a relevant person must take into account—

(a) information in the report referred to in regulation 16A (risk assessment by the Treasury); and

(b) risk factors including factors relating to—

(i) its customers;

(ii) the countries or geographic areas in which it operates;

(iii) its products or services;

(iv) its transactions; and

(v) its delivery channels.

(3) In deciding what steps are appropriate under paragraph (1), the relevant person must take into account the size and nature of its business.

(4) A relevant person must keep an up-to-date record in writing of all the steps it has taken under paragraph (1), unless its supervisory authority notifies it in writing that such a record is not required.

(5) A relevant person must provide the risk assessment it has prepared under paragraph (1), the information on which that risk assessment was based and any record required to be kept under paragraph (4), to its supervisory authority on request.

Policies, controls and procedures

19

(1) A relevant person must—

(a) establish and maintain policies, controls and procedures to mitigate and manage effectively the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing identified in any risk assessment undertaken by the relevant person under regulation 18(1);

(b) regularly review and update the policies, controls and procedures established under sub-paragraph (a);

(i) the policies, controls and procedures established under sub-paragraph (a);

(ii) any changes to those policies, controls and procedures made as a result of the review and update required by sub-paragraph (b); and

(iii) the steps taken to communicate those policies, controls and procedures, or any changes to them, within the relevant person's business.

(2) The policies, controls and procedures adopted by a relevant person under paragraph (1) must be—

(a) proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the relevant person's business, and

(b) approved by its senior management.

(3) The policies, controls and procedures referred to in paragraph (1) must include—

(a) risk management practices;

(b) internal controls (see regulations 21 to 24);

(d) reliance and record keeping (see regulations 39 to 40);

(e) the monitoring and management of compliance with, and the internal communication of, such policies, controls and procedures.

(4) The policies, controls and procedures referred to in paragraph (1) must include policies, controls and procedures—

(a) which provide for the identification and scrutiny of—

(i) any case where—

(aa) a transaction is unusually complex or unusually large in each case given the nature of the transaction, or there is an unusual pattern of transactions, or

(bb) the transaction or transactions have no apparent economic or legal purpose, and

(ii) any other activity or situation which the relevant person regards as particularly likely by its nature to be related to money laundering or terrorist financing;

(b) which specify the taking of additional measures, where appropriate, to prevent the use for money laundering or terrorist financing of products and transactions which might favour anonymity;

(c) which ensure that when new products, new business practices (including new delivery mechanisms) or new technology are adopted by the relevant person, appropriate measures are taken in preparation for, and during, the adoption of such products, practices or technology to assess and if necessary mitigate any money laundering or terrorist financing risks this new product, practice or technology may cause;

(d) under which anyone in the relevant person's organisation who knows or suspects (or has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting) that a person is engaged in money laundering or terrorist financing as a result of information received in the course of the business or otherwise through carrying on that business is required to comply with—

(i) Part 3 of the Terrorism Act 2000 ; or

(ii) Part 7 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 ;

(e) which, in the case of a money service business that uses agents for the purpose of its business, ensure that appropriate measures are taken by the business to assess—

(i) whether an agent used by the business would satisfy the fit and proper test provided for in regulation 58; and

(ii) the extent of the risk that the agent may be used for money laundering or terrorist financing.

(5) In determining what is appropriate or proportionate with regard to the size and nature of its business, a relevant person may take into account any guidance which has been—

(a) issued by the FCA; or

(b) issued by any other supervisory authority or appropriate body and approved by the Treasury.

(6) A relevant person must, where relevant, communicate the policies, controls and procedures which it establishes and maintains in accordance with this regulation to its branches and subsidiary undertakings which are located outside the United Kingdom.

Policies, controls and procedures in relation to proliferation financing

19A

(1) A relevant person must—

(a) establish and maintain policies, controls and procedures to mitigate and manage effectively the risks of proliferation financing identified in any risk assessment undertaken by the relevant person under regulation 18A(1);

(b) regularly review and update the policies, controls and procedures established under sub-paragraph (a);

(i) the policies, controls and procedures established under sub-paragraph (a);

(ii) any changes to those policies, controls and procedures made as a result of the review and update required by sub-paragraph (b); and

(iii) the steps taken to communicate those policies, controls and procedures, or any changes to them, within the relevant person’s business.

(2) The policies, controls and procedures adopted by a relevant person under paragraph (1) must be—

(a) proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the relevant person’s business; and

(b) approved by its senior management.

(3) The policies, controls and procedures referred to in paragraph (1) must include—

(a) risk management practices;

(b) internal controls (see regulations 21 to 24);

(c) the monitoring and management of compliance with, and the internal communication of, such policies, controls and procedures.

(4) The policies, controls and procedures referred to in paragraph (1) must include policies, controls and procedures—

(a) which provide for the identification and scrutiny of—

(i) any case where—

(aa) a transaction is unusually complex or unusually large in each case given the nature of the transaction, or there is an unusual pattern of transactions; or

(bb) the transaction or transactions have no apparent economic or legal purpose, and

(ii) any other activity or situation which the relevant person regards as particularly likely by its nature to be related to proliferation financing;

(b) which specify the taking of additional measures, where appropriate, to prevent the use for proliferation financing of products and transactions which might favour anonymity;

(c) which ensure that when new products, new business practices (including new delivery mechanisms) or new technology are adopted by the relevant person, appropriate measures are taken in preparation for, and during, the adoption of such products, practices or technology to assess and if necessary mitigate any proliferation financing risks this new product, practice or technology may cause;

(d) which, in the case of a money service business that uses agents for the purpose of its business, ensure that appropriate measures are taken by the business to assess—

(i) whether an agent used by the business would satisfy the fit and proper test provided for in regulation 58; and

(ii) the extent of the risk that the agent may be used for proliferation financing.

(5) A relevant person must, where relevant, communicate the policies, controls and procedures which it establishes and maintains in accordance with this regulation to its branches and subsidiary undertakings which are located outside the United Kingdom.

Policies, controls and procedures: group level

20

(1) A relevant parent undertaking must—

(a) ensure that the policies, controls and procedures referred to in regulations 19(1) and 19A(1) apply—

(i) to all its subsidiary undertakings, including subsidiary undertakings located outside the United Kingdom; and

(ii) to any branches it has established outside the United Kingdom;

which is carrying out any activity in respect of which the relevant person is subject to these Regulations;

(b) establish and maintain throughout its group the policies, controls and procedures for data protection and sharing information for the purposes of preventing money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing with other members of the group , including policies on the sharing of information about customers, customer accounts and transactions;

(c) regularly review and update the policies, controls and procedures applied and established under sub-paragraphs (a) and (b);

(d) maintain a record in writing of—

(i) the policies, controls and procedures established under sub-paragraphs (a) and (b);

(ii) any changes to those policies, controls and procedures made as a result of the review and update required by sub-paragraph (c); and

(iii) the steps taken to communicate those policies, controls and procedures, or any changes to them, to its subsidiary undertakings and branches.

(2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(3) If any of the subsidiary undertakings or branches of a relevant parent undertaking are established in a third country which does not impose requirements to counter money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing as strict as those of the United Kingdom, the relevant parent undertaking must ensure that those subsidiary undertakings and branches apply measures equivalent to those required by these Regulations, as far as permitted under the law of the third country.

(4) Where the law of a third country does not permit the application of such equivalent measures by the subsidiary undertaking or branch established in that country, the relevant parent undertaking must—

(a) inform its supervisory authority accordingly; and

(b) take additional measures to handle the risk of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing.

(5) A relevant parent undertaking must ensure that information relevant to the prevention of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing is shared as appropriate between members of its group, subject to any restrictions on sharing information imposed by or under any enactment or otherwise.

(6) The FCA may make technical standards specifying—

(a) what additional measures are required from credit institutions and financial institutions under paragraph (4); and

(b) the minimum action to be taken by credit institutions and financial institutions where paragraph (4) applies.

Internal controls

21

(1) Where appropriate with regard to the size and nature of its business, a relevant person must—

(a) appoint one individual who is a member of the board of directors (or if there is no board, of its equivalent management body) or of its senior management as the officer responsible for the relevant person's compliance with these Regulations;

(b) carry out screening of relevant employees appointed by the relevant person, both before the appointment is made and during the course of the appointment;

(i) to examine and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the policies, controls and procedures adopted by the relevant person to comply with the requirements of these Regulations;

(ii) to make recommendations in relation to those policies, controls and procedures; and

(iii) to monitor the relevant person's compliance with those recommendations.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b)—

(a) “screening” means an assessment of—

(i) the skills, knowledge and expertise of the individual to carry out their functions effectively;

(ii) the conduct and integrity of the individual;

(b) a relevant employee is an employee whose work is—

(i) relevant to the relevant person's compliance with any requirement in these Regulations, or

(ii) otherwise capable of contributing to the—

(aa) identification or mitigation of the risks of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing to which the relevant person's business is subject, or

(bb) prevention or detection of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing in relation to the relevant person's business.

(3) An individual in the relevant person's firm must be appointed as a nominated officer.

(4) A relevant person must, within 14 days of the appointment, inform its supervisory authority of—

(a) the identity of the individual first appointed under paragraph (1)(a);

(b) the identity of the individual first appointed under paragraph (3); and

(5) Where a disclosure is made to the nominated officer, that officer must consider it in the light of any relevant information which is available to the relevant person and determine whether it gives rise to knowledge or suspicion or reasonable grounds for knowledge or suspicion that a person is engaged in money laundering or terrorist financing.

(6) Paragraphs (1) and (3) do not apply where the relevant person is an individual who neither employs nor acts in association with any other person.

(7) A relevant person who is an electronic money issuer or a payment service provider must appoint an individual to monitor and manage compliance with, and the internal communication of, the policies, controls and procedures adopted by the relevant person under regulation 19(1) or 19A(1), and in particular to—

(a) identify any situations of higher risk of money laundering, terrorist financing or proliferation financing;

(b) maintain a record of its policies, controls and procedures, risk assessment and risk management including the application of such policies and procedures;

(c) apply measures to ensure that its policies, controls and procedures are taken into account in all relevant functions including in the development of new products, dealing with new customers and in changes to business activities; and

(d) provide information to senior management about the operation and effectiveness of its policies, controls and procedures whenever appropriate and at least annually.

(8) A relevant person must establish and maintain systems which enable it to respond fully and rapidly to enquiries from any person specified in paragraph (9) as to—

(a) whether it maintains, or has maintained during the previous five years, a business relationship with any person; and

(b) the nature of that relationship.

(9) The persons specified in this paragraph are—

(a) financial investigators accredited under section 3 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (accreditation and training) ;

(b) persons acting on behalf of the Scottish Ministers in their capacity as an enforcement authority under that Act; and

(10) In determining what is appropriate with regard to the size and nature of its business, a relevant person—

(a) must take into account its risk assessment under regulation 18(1) and 18A(1); and

(b) may take into account any guidance which has been—

(i) issued by the FCA; or

(ii) issued by any other supervisory authority or appropriate body and approved by the Treasury.

Central contact points: electronic money issuers and payment service providers

22

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Requirement on authorised person to inform the FCA

23

(1) An authorised person whose supervisory authority is the FCA must, before acting as a money service business or a trust or company service provider or within 28 days of so doing, inform the FCA that it intends, or has begun, to act as such.

(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to an authorised person which—

(a) immediately before the day on which these Regulations come into force (“the relevant date”) was acting as a money service business or a trust or company service provider and continues to act as such after that date; and

(b) informs the FCA that it is acting as such within 30 days of the relevant date.

(3) Where an authorised person whose supervisory authority is the FCA ceases to act as a money service business or a trust or company service provider, it must within 28 days inform the FCA.

(3A) If, at any time after an authorised person whose supervisory authority is the FCA (“A”) has provided the FCA with any information under this regulation—

(a) there is a material change affecting any matter contained in that information; or

(b) it becomes apparent to A that the information contains an inaccuracy,

then A must provide the FCA with details of the change or a correction of the inaccuracy within 30 days beginning with the date of the occurrence of the change or the discovery of the inaccuracy.

(4) Any requirement imposed by this regulation is to be treated as if it were a requirement imposed by or under FSMA.

(5) Any information to be provided to the FCA under this regulation must be in such form or verified in such manner as it may specify.

Training

24

(1) A relevant person must—

(a) take appropriate measures to ensure that its relevant employees , and any agents it uses for the purposes of its business whose work is of a kind mentioned in paragraph (2), are—

(i) made aware of the law relating to money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing, and to the requirements of data protection, which are relevant to the implementation of these Regulations; and

(ii) regularly given training in how to recognise and deal with transactions and other activities or situations which may be related to money laundering, terrorist financing or proliferation financing;

(b) maintain a record in writing of the measures taken under sub-paragraph (a), and in particular, of the training given to its relevant employees and to any agents it uses for the purposes of its business whose work is of a kind mentioned in paragraph (2).

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a relevant employee is an employee whose work is—

(a) relevant to the relevant person's compliance with any requirement in these Regulations, or

(b) otherwise capable of contributing to the—

(i) identification or mitigation of the risk of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing to which the relevant person's business is subject; or

(ii) prevention or detection of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing in relation to the relevant person's business.

(3) In determining what measures are appropriate under paragraph (1), a relevant person—

(a) must take account of—

(i) the nature of its business;

(ii) its size;

(iii) the nature and extent of the risks of money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing to which its business is subject; and

(b) may take into account any guidance which has been—

(i) issued by the FCA; or

(ii) issued by any other supervisory authority or appropriate body and approved by the Treasury.

Supervisory action

25

(1) The supervisory authority must determine whether the additional measures taken under regulation 20(4) by a relevant parent undertaking which is an authorised person , a qualifying parent undertaking (as defined by section 192B of FSMA) or a non-authorised parent undertaking (as defined by section 143B of FSMA) are sufficient to handle the risk of money laundering and terrorist financing effectively.

(2) If the supervisory authority does not consider the measures referred to in paragraph (1) to be sufficient, it must consider whether to direct the relevant parent undertaking—

(a) not to enter into a business relationship with a specified person;

(b) not to undertake transactions of a specified description with a specified person;

(d) to cease any operations in the third country.

(e) to ensure that its subsidiary undertaking—

(i) does not enter into a business relationship with a specified person;

(ii) terminates an existing business relationship with a specified person; or

(iii) does not undertake transactions of a specified description with a specified person, or ceases any operations in the third country.

(3) A direction issued under paragraph (2) takes effect—

(a) immediately, if the notice given under paragraph (6) states that that is the case;

(b) on such date as may be specified in the notice; or

(4) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a matter to which a notice relates is still open to review if—

(a) the period during which any person may refer the matter to the appropriate tribunal is still running;

(b) the matter has been referred to the appropriate tribunal but has not been dealt with;

(c) the matter has been referred to the appropriate tribunal and dealt with but the period during which an appeal may be brought against the appropriate tribunal's decision is still running; or

(d) such an appeal has been brought but has not been determined.

(5) Where the FCA proposes to issue a direction under paragraph (2) to a PRA-authorised person or to a person who has a qualifying relationship with a PRA-authorised person, it must consult the PRA.

(6) If the supervisory authority issues a direction under paragraph (2) it must give the relevant parent undertaking (“A”) a notice in writing.

(7) The notice must—

(a) give details of the direction;

(b) state the supervisory authority's reasons for issuing the direction;

(c) inform A that A may make representations to the supervisory authority within such period as may be specified in the notice (whether or not A has referred the matter to the appropriate tribunal);

(d) inform A of when the direction takes effect; and

(e) inform A of A's right to refer the matter to the appropriate tribunal.

(8) The supervisory authority may extend the period allowed under the notice for making representations.

(9) If, having considered any representations made by A, the supervisory authority decides—

(a) to issue the direction, or

(b) if the direction has been issued, not to rescind the direction,

it must give A notice in writing.

(10) If, having considered any representations made by A, the supervisory authority decides—

(a) not to issue the direction,

(b) to issue a different direction, or

it must give A notice in writing.

(11) A notice under paragraph (9) must inform A of A's right to refer the matter to the appropriate tribunal.

(12) A notice under paragraph (10)(b) must comply with paragraph (7).

(13) If a notice informs A of A's right to refer a matter to the appropriate tribunal, it must give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.

(13A) The supervisory authority may, if it considers it proportionate to do so, publish such information about a direction given under paragraph (2) as the authority considers appropriate.

(13B) Where the supervisory authority publishes such information and the supervisory authority decides to rescind the direction to which the notice relates, the supervisory authority must, without delay, publish that fact in the same manner as that in which the information was published under paragraph (13A).

(13C) Where the supervisory authority publishes information under paragraph (13A) and the person to whom the notice is given refers the matter to the Upper Tribunal, the supervisory authority must, without delay, publish information about the status of the appeal and its outcome in the same manner as that in which the information was published under paragraph (13A).

(14) For the purpose of this regulation—

(a) “appropriate tribunal” means—

(i) the Upper Tribunal, in the case of a direction issued by the FCA;

(ii) the First-tier or Upper Tribunal, as provided for in regulation 99, in the case of a direction issued by the Commissioners;

(b) “specified” means specified in the direction.

CHAPTER 3 — Ownership and Management Restrictions

Prohibitions and approvals

26

(1) No person may be the beneficial owner, officer or manager of a firm within paragraph (2) (“a relevant firm”), or a sole practitioner within paragraph (2) (“a relevant sole practitioner”), unless that person has been approved as a beneficial owner, officer or manager of the firm or as a sole practitioner by the supervisory authority of the firm or sole practitioner.

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