The Republic of Belarus (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019
- (a) without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails within the time and in the manner specified (or, if no time has been specified, within a reasonable time) to comply with any request under regulation 40 (finance: powers to request information);
- (b) knowingly or recklessly gives any information, or produces any document, which is false in a material particular in response to such a request;
- (c) with intent to evade any provision of regulation 40 (finance: powers to request information) or 41 (finance: production of documents), destroys, mutilates, defaces, conceals or removes any document;
- (d) otherwise intentionally obstructs the Treasury in the exercise of their powers under regulation 40 (finance: powers to request information) or 41 (finance: production of documents).
- (2) Where a person is convicted of an offence under this regulation, the court may make an order requiring that person, within such period as may be specified in the order, to comply with the request.
Trade: application of information powers in CEMA
43
- (1) Section 77A of CEMA applies in relation to a person carrying on a relevant activity as it applies in relation to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods but as if—
- (a) in subsection (1), the reference to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods for which for that purpose ... under CEMA were to a person carrying on a relevant activity;
- (b) any other reference to importation or exportation were to a relevant activity;
- (c) any reference to goods were to the goods, technology, services or funds to which the relevant activity relates.
- (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a “relevant activity” means an activity which would, unless done under the authority of a trade licence , constitute a contravention of—
- (a) any prohibition in Chapters 2, ... 2B , 2C or 2D of Part 5 (Trade) except the prohibitions in regulation 21 (export of goods to, or for use in, Belarus) or 27I (import of goods originating from, or consigned from, Belarus), or
- (b) the prohibition in regulation 28 (circumventing etc prohibitions).
General trade licences: records
44
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a person (“P”) who does any act authorised by a general licence issued under regulation 33 (trade licences) (“the licence”).
- (2) P must keep a register or record containing such details as may be necessary to allow the following information to be identified in relation to each act done under the authority of the licence—
- (a) a description of the act;
- (b) a description of any goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (c) the date of the act or the dates between which the act took place;
- (d) the quantity of any goods or funds to which the act relates;
- (e) P's name and address;
- (f) the name and address of any consignee of goods to which the act relates or any recipient of technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (g) in so far as it is known to P, the name and address of the end-user of the goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
- (h) if different from P, the name and address of the supplier of any goods to which the act relates;
- (i) any further information required by the licence.
- (3) The register or record relating to an act must be kept until the end of the calendar year in which the register or record is created and for a further period of 4 years from the end of that calendar year.
- (4) P must notify the Secretary of State in writing of P's name and the address at which the register or record may be inspected, and must make a further such notification if those details change.
- (5) A notification under paragraph (4) must be given no later than 30 days after—
- (a) P first does any act authorised by the licence, or
- (b) there is any change to the details previously notified.
- (6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (2), (3) or (4) commits an offence.
General trade licences: inspection of records
45
- (1) A person authorised by the Secretary of State or the Commissioners (an “official”) may at any reasonable hour enter premises notified under regulation 44(4) for the purposes of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of regulation 44(2) or (3).
- (2) An official may require any person on the premises to produce any register or record required to be kept under regulation 44, or any document included in such a register or record, that is in the person's possession or control.
- (3) An official may inspect and copy any such register, record or document.
- (4) An official must, if requested to do so, produce documentary evidence that he or she is authorised to exercise a power conferred by this regulation.
- (5) A person commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person—
- (a) intentionally obstructs an official in the performance of any of the official's functions under this regulation, or
- (b) fails to produce a register, record or document when reasonably required to do so by an official under this regulation.
Disclosure of information
46
- (1) The Secretary of State, the Treasury , OFCOM or the Commissioners may, in accordance with this regulation, disclose—
- (a) any information obtained under or by virtue of Part 6 (Exceptions and licences), this Part or Part 9 (Maritime enforcement), or
- (b) any information held in connection with—
- (i) anything done under or by virtue of Part 2 (Designation of persons), Part 3 (Finance), Part 3A (Director disqualification sanctions), Part 5 (Trade), Part 5A (Aircraft) or Part 5B (Ships), or
- (ii) any exception or licence under Part 6 or anything done in accordance with such an exception or under the authority of such a licence.
- (2) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed for, or in connection with, any of the following purposes—
- (a) the exercise of functions under these Regulations;
- (b) any purpose stated in regulation 4;
- (c) facilitating, monitoring or ensuring compliance with these Regulations;
- (d) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in the United Kingdom—
- (i) for an offence under any provision of these Regulations,
- (ii) for an offence under CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 21 (export of goods to, or for use in, Belarus) or 27I (import of goods originating from, or consigned from, Belarus) ,
- (iii) in relation to a monetary penalty under section 146 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (breach of financial sanctions legislation) ; or
- (iv) in relation to a monetary penalty under regulation 56A (OFCOM: power to impose monetary penalties).
- (e) taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man, or any British overseas territory, for an offence—
- (i) under a provision in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a provision of these Regulations, or
- (ii) in connection with a prohibition in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a prohibition referred to in sub-paragraph (d)(ii);
- (f) compliance with an international obligation ;
- (g) facilitating the exercise by an authority outside the United Kingdom or by an international organisation of functions which correspond to functions under these Regulations.
- (3) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to the following persons—
- (a) a police officer;
- (b) any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of—
- (i) the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
- (ii) the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
- (iii) the States of Jersey, Guernsey or Alderney or the Chief Pleas of Sark,
- (iv) the Government of the Isle of Man, or
- (v) the Government of any British overseas territory;
- (c) any law officer of the Crown for Jersey, Guernsey or the Isle of Man;
- (d) the Scottish Legal Aid Board;
- (e) the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England, the Jersey Financial Services Commission, the Guernsey Financial Services Commission or the Isle of Man Financial Services Authority;
- (f) any other regulatory body (whether or not in the United Kingdom);
- (g) any organ of the United Nations;
- (h) the Council of the European Union, the European Commission or the European External Action Service;
- (i) the Government of any country;
- (j) any other person where the Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners (as the case may be) considers that it is appropriate to disclose the information.
- (4) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to any person with the consent of a person who, in their own right, is entitled to the information.
- (5) In paragraph (4) “in their own right” means not merely in the capacity as a servant or agent of another person.
- (6) In paragraph (1)(b)—
- (a) the reference to information includes information obtained at a time when any provision of these Regulations is not in force, and
- (b) the reference to a licence under Part 6 includes—
- (i) a licence or authorisation which is treated as if it were a licence which had been issued under that Part, and
- (ii) a licence which is deemed to have been issued under that Part.
Part 7: supplementary
47
- (1) A disclosure of information under regulation 46 or 46A does not breach any restriction on such disclosure imposed by statute or otherwise.
- (2) But nothing in those regulations authorises a disclosure that—
- (a) contravenes the data protection legislation, or
- (b) is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 .
- (3) Nothing in this Part is to be read as requiring a person who has acted or is acting as counsel or solicitor for any person to disclose any privileged information in their possession in that capacity.
- (4) Regulations 46 and 46A do not limit the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from those regulations.
- (5) Nothing in this Part limits any conditions which may be contained in a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
- (6) In this regulation—
- “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act) ;
- “privileged information” means information with respect to which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings.
PART 8 — Enforcement
Penalties for offences
48
- (1) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 3 (Finance) , regulation 29D(A1) to (3) (aircraft offences), 29F (prohibition on port entry), 29G(4) (directions prohibiting port entry), 29H(3) (movement of ships) or or regulation 35 (finance: licensing offences), is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or a fine (or both).
- (2) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 5 (Trade) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or a fine (or both).
- (3) A person who commits an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), 35A (director disqualification: licensing offences), 36 (trade: licensing offences) and 36A (aircraft: licensing offences), 44(6) or 45(5) (offences in connection with trade licences) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
- (d) on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both).
- (4) A person who commits an offence under regulation 29D(4) (confidentiality), 29G(6) (directions prohibiting port entry: confidentiality), 29H(5) (movement of ships: confidentiality), 38(6) , 38A(6) (designated persons: reporting obligations), 42 (information offences in connection with Part 3) , or 45B (internet services: information offences) is liable—
- (a) on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine (or both);
- (b) on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
- (c) on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
- (5) In relation to an offence committed before 2nd May 2022 the reference in each of paragraphs (1)(a), (2)(a) and (3)(a) to the general limit in a magistrates’ court is to be read as a reference to 6 months.
Liability of officers of bodies corporate etc
49
- (1) Where an offence under these Regulations , committed by a body corporate—
- (a) is committed with the consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, or any person who was purporting to act in any such capacity, or
- (b) is attributable to any neglect on the part of any such person,
that person as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
- (3) Paragraph (1) also applies in relation to a body that is not a body corporate, with the substitution for the reference to a director of the body of a reference—
- (a) in the case of a partnership, to a partner;
- (b) in the case of an unincorporated body other than a partnership—
- (i) where the body's affairs are managed by its members, to a member of the body;
- (ii) in any other case, to a member of the governing body.
- (4) Section 171(4) of CEMA (which is a provision similar to this regulation) does not apply to any offence under these Regulations to which that provision would, in the absence of this paragraph, apply.
Jurisdiction to try offences
50
- (1) Where an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), Part 3 (Finance), Part 5A (Aircraft), Part 5B (Ships), regulation 35 (finance: licensing offences) , regulation 38(6) or 42 (information offences in connection with Part 3) , or 45B (internet services: information offences) is committed in the United Kingdom—
- (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
- (2) Where an offence under these Regulations is committed outside the United Kingdom—
- (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
- (b) the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
- (3) In the application of paragraph (2) to Scotland, any such proceedings against a person may be taken—
- (a) in any sheriff court district in which the person is apprehended or is in custody, or
- (b) in such sheriff court district as the Lord Advocate may determine.
- (4) In paragraph (3) “sheriff court district” is to be read in accordance with the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (see section 307(1) of that Act) .
Procedure for offences by unincorporated bodies
51
- (1) Paragraphs (2) and (3) apply if it is alleged that an offence under these Regulations has been committed by an unincorporated body (as opposed to by a member of the body).
- (2) Proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland for such an offence must be brought against the body in its own name.
- (3) For the purposes of proceedings, for such an offence brought against an unincorporated body—
- (a) rules of court relating to the service of documents have effect as if the body were a body corporate;
- (b) the following provisions apply as they apply in relation to a body corporate
- (i) section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 ;
- (ii) section 18 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 and Article 166 of, and Schedule 4 to, the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 .
- (4) A fine imposed on an unincorporated body on its conviction of an offence under these Regulations is to be paid out of the funds of the body.
Time limit for proceedings for summary offences
52
- (1) Proceedings for an offence under these Regulations which is triable only summarily may be brought within the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the prosecutor's knowledge.
- (2) But such proceedings may not be brought by virtue of paragraph (1) more than 3 years after the commission of the offence.
- (3) A certificate signed by the prosecutor as to the date on which the evidence in question came to the prosecutor's knowledge is conclusive evidence of the date on which it did so; and a certificate to that effect and purporting to be so signed is to be treated as being so signed unless the contrary is proved.
- (4) In relation to proceedings in Scotland—
- (a) section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (date of commencement of summary proceedings) applies for the purposes of this regulation as it applies for the purposes of that section, and
- (b) references in this regulation to the prosecutor are to be treated as references to the Lord Advocate.
Trade enforcement: application of CEMA
53
- (1) Where the Commissioners investigate or propose to investigate any matter with a view to determining—
- (a) whether there are grounds for believing that a relevant offence has been committed, or
- (b) whether a person should be prosecuted for such an offence,
the matter is to be treated as an assigned matter.
- (2) In paragraph (1) “assigned matter” has the meaning given by section 1(1) of CEMA .
- (3) In this regulation a “relevant offence” means an offence under—
- (a) Part 5 (Trade),
- (b) regulation 36 (trade: licensing offences),
- (c) regulation 44(6) (general trade licences: records), or
- (d) regulation 45(5) (general trade licences: inspection of records).
- (3A) The Commissioners may not investigate the suspected commission of an offence listed in paragraph (3B) , (3C) or (3D) , unless the suspected offence has been the subject of—
- (a) a referral to the Commissioners by—
- (i) the Secretary of State,
- (ii) the Treasury, or
- (iii) OFCOM, where such referral relates to a suspected offence under regulation 27P(4); or
- (b) a decision by the Commissioners to treat the suspected offence as if it had been referred to them under sub-paragraph (a).
- (3B) Paragraph (3A) applies to the suspected commission of an offence under any of the following provisions—
- (a) regulation 22(3) insofar as it does not relate to chemical and biological weapons-related goods, dual-use goods, interception and monitoring goods, internal repression goods, and military goods ,
- (aa) regulation 23(3) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK, to chemical and biological weapons-related goods and chemical and biological weapons-related technology, dual-use goods and dual-use technology, interception and monitoring goods and interception and monitoring technology, internal repression goods and internal repression technology, or military goods and military technology,
- (ab) regulation 24(3) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK, to chemical and biological weapons-related goods and chemical and biological weapons-related technology, dual-use goods and dual-use technology, interception and monitoring goods and interception and monitoring technology, internal repression goods and internal repression technology, or military goods and military technology,
- (b) regulation 24A(3),
- (ba) regulation 25(3) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK, to chemical and biological weapons-related goods and chemical and biological weapons-related technology, dual-use goods and dual-use technology, interception and monitoring goods and interception and monitoring technology, internal repression goods and internal repression technology, or military goods and military technology,
- (bb) regulation 26(5) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK, to chemical and biological weapons-related goods and chemical and biological weapons-related technology, dual-use goods and dual-use technology, interception and monitoring goods and interception and monitoring technology, internal repression goods and internal repression technology, or military goods and military technology,
- (c) regulation 27(3) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods or transfer of technology to or from the UK, chemical and biological weapons-related goods and chemical and biological weapons-related technology, dual-use goods and dual-use technology, interception and monitoring goods and interception and monitoring technology, internal repression goods and internal repression technology, or military goods and military technology ,
- (ca) regulation 27J(5) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods or arms and related materiel,
- (d) regulation 27K(5) insofar as the offence does not relate to arms and related materiel ,
- (e) regulation 27L(3) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods ,
- (f) regulation 27M(4) insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK ,
- (g) regulation 27M(5) insofar as it does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK ,
- (ga) regulation 27N(4), insofar as the offence does not relate to the import or export of goods or the transfer of technology to or from the UK,
- (gb) regulation 27O(3),
- (h) regulation 27P(4).
- (3C) Regulation 53(3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under any of regulations 36(1), 36(2), 44(6) and 45(5) insofar as—
- (a) the suspected offence relates to a licence issued under regulation 33, and
- (b) the prohibited activity authorised by that licence would, if no licence had been issued, amount to an offence specified in paragraph (3B)(a) to (h).
- (3D) Paragraph (3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under regulation 28(2) (circumventing etc prohibitions) insofar as the prohibited activity to which the suspected offence relates is the circumvention of, or enabling or facilitation of a contravention of, a prohibition in relation to an offence specified in paragraph (3B).
- (4) Section 138 of CEMA (arrest of persons) applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence as it applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, an offence for which the person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts , but as if—
- (a) any reference to an offence under, or for which a person is liable to be arrested under, the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
- (b) in subsection (2), the reference to any person so liable were to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence.
- (5) The provisions of CEMA mentioned in paragraph (6) apply in relation to proceedings for a relevant offence as they apply in relation to proceedings for an offence under the customs and excise Acts, but as if—
- (a) any reference to the customs and excise Acts were to any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d);
- (b) in section 145(6), the reference to an offence for which a person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
- (c) in section 151, the reference to any penalty imposed under the customs and excise Acts were to any penalty imposed under these Regulations in relation to a relevant offence;
- (d) in section 154(2)—
- (i) the reference to proceedings relating to customs or excise were to proceedings under any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d), and
- (ii) the reference to the place from which any goods have been brought included a reference to the place to which goods have been exported, supplied or delivered or the place to or from which technology has been transferred.
- (6) The provisions of CEMA are sections 145, 146, 147, 148(1), 150, 151, 152, 154 and 155 (legal proceedings).
- (7) Any term in this regulation that is defined in Chapter 1 (Interpretation) of Part 5 (Trade) bears the same meaning as in that Chapter of that Part.
Trade offences in CEMA: modification of penalty
54
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 68(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 21 (export of goods to, or for use in, Belarus).
- (2) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
- (3) Paragraph (4) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 170(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 21 (export of goods to, or for use in, Belarus) or 27I(1) or (2) (import of goods originating in, or consigned from, Belarus).
- (4) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
- (5) Paragraph (6) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 50(2) or (3) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 27I(1) or (2) (import of goods originating in, or consigned from, Belarus).
- (6) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 50(4)(b) of CEMA is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
Application of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005
55
Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (investigatory powers) applies to any offence under Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 35 (finance: licensing offences).
Monetary penalties
56
Each provision in Part 5 (Trade) which contains a prohibition imposed for a purpose mentioned in section 3(1) or (2) of the Act , or regulation 38A (designated persons: reporting obligations) is to be regarded as not being financial sanctions legislation for the purposes of Part 8 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017.
PART 9 — Maritime enforcement
Exercise of maritime enforcement powers
57
- (1) A maritime enforcement officer may, for a purpose mentioned in paragraph (2) or (3), exercise any of the maritime enforcement powers in relation to—
- (a) a British ship in foreign waters or international waters,
- (b) a ship without nationality in international waters, or
- (c) a foreign ship in international waters,
and a ship within sub-paragraph (a), (b) or (c) is referred to in this Part as “a relevant ship”.
- (2) The maritime enforcement powers may be exercised for the purpose of enforcing any of the following—
- (a) the prohibition in regulation 21 (export of goods to, or for use in, Belarus)
- (b) the prohibition in regulation 22 (supply and delivery of goods from a third country to Belarus);
- (c) the prohibitions in regulation 23 (making available goods and technology to a person connected with, or for use in, Belarus);
- (d) the prohibitions in regulation 24 (transfer of technology to a place in, or person connected with, Belarus);
- (e) the prohibitions in regulation 27I(1) or (2), regulation 27J(1) or (3) or regulation 27K(1) or (2) (import, acquisition and supply and delivery of goods);
- (f) a prohibition imposed by a condition of a licence issued under regulation 33 (trade licences) in relation to a prohibition mentioned in any of sub-paragraphs (a) to (e).
- (3) The maritime enforcement powers may also be exercised in relation to a relevant ship for the purpose of—
- (a) investigating the suspected carriage of relevant goods on the ship, or
- (b) preventing the continued carriage on the ship of goods suspected to be relevant goods.
- (4) In this Part, “the maritime enforcement powers” are the powers conferred by regulations 59 and 60.
- (5) This regulation is subject to regulation 61 (restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers).
Maritime enforcement officers
58
- (1) The following persons are “maritime enforcement officers” for the purposes of this Part—
- (a) a commissioned officer of any of Her Majesty's ships;
- (b) a member of the Ministry of Defence Police (within the meaning of section 1 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 );
- (c) a constable—
- (i) who is a member of a police force in England and Wales,
- (ii) within the meaning of section 99 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 , or
- (iii) who is a member of the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve;
- (d) a special constable—
- (i) appointed under section 27 of the Police Act 1996 ,
- (ii) appointed under section 9 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012, or
- (iii) in Northern Ireland, appointed by virtue of provision incorporating section 79 of the Harbours, Docks, and Piers Clauses Act 1847 ;
- (e) a constable who is a member of the British Transport Police Force;
- (f) a port constable, within the meaning of section 7 of the Marine Navigation Act 2013 , or a person appointed to act as a constable under provision made by virtue of section 16 of the Harbours Act 1964 ;
- (g) a designated customs official within the meaning of Part 1 of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (see section 14(6) of that Act) ;
- (h) a designated NCA officer who is authorised by the Director General of the National Crime Agency (whether generally or specifically) to exercise the powers of a maritime enforcement officer under this Part.
- (2) In this regulation, “a designated NCA officer” means a National Crime Agency officer who is either or both of the following—
- (a) an officer designated under section 10 of the Crime and Courts Act 2013 as having the powers and privileges of a constable;
- (b) an officer designated under that section as having the powers of a general customs official.
Power to stop, board, search etc
59
- (1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a relevant ship is carrying prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (2) The officer may—
- (a) stop the ship;
- (b) board the ship;
- (c) for the purpose of exercising a power conferred by paragraph (3) or regulation 60, require the ship to be taken to, and remain in, a port or anchorage in the United Kingdom or any other country willing to receive it.
- (3) Where the officer boards a ship by virtue of this regulation, the officer may—
- (a) stop any person found on the ship and search that person for—
- (i) prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
- (ii) any thing that might be used to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship;
- (b) search the ship, or any thing found on the ship (including cargo) for prohibited goods or relevant goods;
- (4) The officer may—
- (a) require a person found on a ship boarded by virtue of this regulation to provide information or produce documents;
- (b) inspect and copy such information or documents.
- (5) The officer may exercise a power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(i) or (b) only to the extent reasonably required for the purpose of discovering prohibited goods or relevant goods.
- (6) The officer may exercise the power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(ii) in relation to a person only where the officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the person might use a thing to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship.
- (7) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
Seizure power
60
- (1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer is lawfully on a relevant ship (whether in exercise of the powers conferred by regulation 59 or otherwise).
- (2) The officer may seize any of the following which are found on the ship, in any thing found on the ship, or on any person found on the ship—
- (a) goods which the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect are prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
- (b) things within regulation 59(3)(a)(ii).
- (3) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
Restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers
61
- (1) The authority of the Secretary of State is required before any maritime enforcement power is exercised in reliance on regulation 57 in relation to—
- (a) a British ship in foreign waters, or
- (b) a foreign ship in international waters.
- (2) In relation to a British ship in foreign waters other than the sea and other waters within the seaward limits of the territorial sea adjacent to any relevant British possession, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if the State in whose waters the power would be exercised consents to the exercise of the power.
- (3) In relation to a foreign ship in international waters, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if—
- (a) the home state has requested the assistance of the United Kingdom for a purpose mentioned in regulation 57(2) or (3),
- (b) the home state has authorised the United Kingdom to act for such a purpose, or
- (c) the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982 or a UN Security Council Resolution otherwise permits the exercise of the power in relation to the ship.
Interpretation of Part 9
62
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), any expression used in this Part and in section 19 or 20 of the Act has the same meaning in this Part as it has in section 19 or (as the case may be) section 20 of the Act.
- (2) For the purpose of interpreting any reference to “prohibited goods” or “relevant goods” in this Part, any reference in section 19 or 20 of the Act to a “relevant prohibition or requirement” is to be read as a reference to any prohibition specified in regulation 57(2)(a) to (e).
PART 10 — Supplementary and final provision
Notices
63
- (1) This regulation applies in relation to a notice required by regulation 34 (licences: general provisions) to be given to a person.
- (2) The notice may be given to an individual—
- (a) by delivering it to the individual,
- (b) by sending it to the individual by post addressed to the individual at his or her usual or last-known place of residence or business, or
- (c) by leaving it for the individual at that place.
- (3) The notice may be given to a person other than an individual—
- (a) by sending it by post to the proper officer of the body at its principal office, or
- (b) by addressing it to the proper officer of the body and leaving it at that office.
- (4) The notice may be given to the person by other means, including by electronic means, with the person's consent.
- (5) In this regulation, the reference in paragraph (3) to a “principal office”—
- (a) in relation to a registered company, is to be read as a reference to the company's registered office;
- (b) in relation to a body incorporated or constituted under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom, includes a reference to the body's principal office in the United Kingdom (if any).
- (6) In this regulation—
- “proper officer”—in relation to a body other than a partnership, means the secretary or other executive officer charged with the conduct of the body's general affairs, andin relation to a partnership, means a partner or a person who has the control or management of the partnership business;
- “registered company” means a company registered under the enactments relating to companies for the time being in force in the United Kingdom.
Article 20 of the Export Control Order 2008
64
Article 20 of the Export Control Order 2008 (embargoed destinations) is not to be taken to prohibit anything prohibited by Part 5 (Trade).
Trade: overlapping offences
65
A person is not to be taken to commit an offence under the Export Control Order 2008 if the person would, in the absence of this regulation, commit an offence under both—
- (a) article 34, 35, 37 or 38 of that Order, and
- (b) any provision of Part 5 (Trade) or regulation 36 (trade: licensing offences), 44(6) or 45(5) (information offences in connection with general trade licences).
Revocation of the Belarus Council Regulation
66
Council Regulation (EC) No 765/2006 concerning restrictive measures in respect of Belarus is revoked.
Other revocations and amendments
67
- (1) The Belarus (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2013 are revoked.
- (2) The Export Control (Belarus) and (Syria Amendment) Order 2011 is revoked.
Transitional provision: Treasury licences
68
- (1) Paragraphs (2) to (4) apply to a licence which—
- (a) was granted, or deemed to be granted, by the Treasury under regulation 9 of the 2013 Regulations,
- (b) was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
- (c) authorises conduct which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (2) to (4)) be prohibited under Part 3 (Finance),
and such a licence is referred to in this regulation as “an existing financial sanctions licence”.
- (2) An existing financial sanctions licence which authorises an act which would otherwise be prohibited has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been issued by the Treasury under regulation 32(1) (Treasury licences).
- (3) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to the 2013 Regulations is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to these Regulations.
- (4) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to a prohibition in—
- (a) the 2013 Regulations, or
- (b) the EU Belarus Regulation,
is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition in Part 3 (Finance).
- (5) Paragraph (6) applies where—
- (a) an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence, under the 2013 Regulations was made before the relevant date,
- (b) the application is for the authorisation of conduct which would (on and after the relevant date) be prohibited under Part 3, and
- (c) a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before that date.
- (6) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence (as the case may be), under regulation 32(1) (Treasury licences).
- (7) In this regulation—
- “the 2013 Regulations” means the Belarus (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2013;
- “the relevant date” means—where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 3 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;otherwise, the date on which Part 3 comes into force.
Transitional provision: trade licences
69
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies in relation to each licence or authorisation granted by the Secretary of State which—
- (a) was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
- (b) authorises an act—
- (i) which would otherwise be prohibited by any provision of the Export Control Order 2008 except article 20 of that Order (embargoed destinations), and
- (ii) which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraph (2)) be prohibited by Part 5 (Trade),
and such a licence or authorisation is referred to in this regulation as an “existing trade licence”.
- (2) A licence is deemed to have been issued by the Secretary of State at the beginning of the relevant date under regulation 33 (trade licences)—
- (a) disapplying every provision of Part 5 which would, in the absence of this paragraph, prohibit any act authorised by the existing trade licence, and
- (b) otherwise in the same terms as the existing trade licence.
- (3) Paragraphs (4) to (6) apply to a licence or authorisation granted by the Secretary of State which—
- (a) was in effect immediately before the relevant date, ...
- (aa) is not an existing trade licence, and
- (b) authorises an act—
- (i) which would otherwise be prohibited by the EU Belarus Regulation, and
- (ii) which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (4) to (6)) be prohibited by Part 5 (Trade),
and such a licence or authorisation is referred to in this regulation as “an existing trade sanctions licence”.
- (4) An existing trade sanctions licence has effect on and after the relevant date as if it were a licence which had been issued by the Secretary of State under regulation 33.
- (5) Any reference in an existing trade sanctions licence to a provision of the Export Control (Belarus) and (Syria Amendment) Order 2011 or Export Control Order 2008 is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding provision of these Regulations (if any).
- (6) Any reference in an existing trade sanctions licence to a prohibition in the EU Belarus Regulation is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition in Part 5 (Trade).
- (7) In this regulation, “the relevant date” means—
- (a) where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 5 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
- (b) otherwise, the date on which Part 5 comes into force.
Transitional provision: pending applications for trade licences
70
- (1) Paragraph (2) applies where—
- (a) an application was made before the relevant date for a licence or authorisation under or pursuant to the Export Control Order 2008,
- (b) the application is for authorisation of an act prohibited by Part 5 (Trade), and
- (c) a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before the relevant date.
- (2) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as including an application for a licence under regulation 33 (trade licences).
- (3) Paragraph (4) applies where—
- (a) an application was made before the relevant date for a licence or authorisation under the Export Control (Belarus) and (Syria Amendment) Order 2011 or the EU Belarus Regulation,
- (b) the application is for authorisation of an act prohibited by Part 5 (Trade), and
- (c) a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before the relevant date.
- (4) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence under regulation 33.
- (5) In this regulation, “the relevant date” means—
- (a) where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 5 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
- (b) otherwise, the date on which Part 5 comes into force.
Transitional provisions: prior obligations
71
- (1) Where—
- (a) a person was named in Annex I of the EU Belarus Regulation immediately before the relevant date, and
- (b) the person is a designated person immediately before the relevant date,
any reference in a provision mentioned in paragraph (2) to the date on which a person became a designated person is a reference to the date on which the person was named in that Annex.
- (2) The provisions referred to in paragraph (1) are—
- (a) regulation 30(5) (finance: exception from prohibitions), and
- (b) paragraph 9(a) of Schedule 3 (Treasury licences: purposes).
- (3) In this regulation—
- “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
- “the relevant date” means—where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 3 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;otherwise, the date on which Part 3 comes into force.
SCHEDULE 1 — Rules for interpretation of regulations 7(2) and 15D(3) and (4)
Application of Schedule
1
- (1) The rules set out in the following paragraphs of this Schedule apply for the purpose of interpreting regulations 7(2) and 15D(3) and (4).
- (2) They also apply for the purpose of interpreting this Schedule.
Joint interests
2
If two or more persons each hold a share or right jointly, each of them is treated as holding that share or right.
Joint arrangements
3
- (1) If shares or rights held by a person and shares or rights held by another person are the subject of a joint arrangement between those persons, each of them is treated as holding the combined shares or rights of both of them.
- (2) A “joint arrangement” is an arrangement between the holders of shares or rights that they will exercise all or substantially all the rights conferred by their respective shares or rights jointly in a way that is pre-determined by the arrangement.
- (3) “Arrangement” has the meaning given by paragraph 12.
Calculating shareholdings
4
- (1) In relation to a person who has a share capital, a reference to holding “more than 50% of the shares” in that person is to holding shares comprised in the issued share capital of that person of a nominal value exceeding (in aggregate) 50% of that share capital.
- (2) In relation to a person who does not have a share capital—
- (a) a reference to holding shares in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person;
- (b) a reference to holding “more than 50% of the shares” in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in more than 50% of the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person.
Voting rights
5
- (1) A reference to the voting rights in a person is to the rights conferred on shareholders in respect of their shares (or, in the case of a person not having a share capital, on members) to vote at general meetings of the person on all or substantially all matters.
- (2) In relation to a person that does not have general meetings at which matters are decided by the exercise of voting rights—
- (a) a reference to holding voting rights in the person is to be read as a reference to holding rights in relation to the person that are equivalent to those of a person entitled to exercise voting rights in a company;
- (b) a reference to holding “more than 50% of the voting rights” in the person is to be read as a reference to holding the right under the constitution of the person to block changes to the overall policy of the person or to the terms of its constitution.
6
In applying regulation 7(2) and this Schedule, the voting rights in a person are to be reduced by any rights held by the person itself.
Rights to appoint or remove members of the board
7
A reference to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of a person is to the right to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of the voting rights at meetings of the board on all or substantially all matters.
8
A reference to a board of directors, in the case of a person who does not have such a board, is to be read as a reference to the equivalent management body of that person.
Shares or rights held “indirectly”
9
- (1) A person holds a share “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person—
- (a) holds the share in question, or
- (b) is part of a chain of persons—
- (i) each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
- (ii) the last of whom holds the share.
- (2) A person holds a right “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person—
- (a) holds that right, or
- (b) is part of a chain of persons—
- (i) each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
- (ii) the last of whom holds that right.
- (3) For these purposes, a person (“A”) has a “majority stake” in another person (“B”) if—
- (a) A holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
- (b) A is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of B,
- (c) A is a member of B and controls alone, pursuant to an agreement with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights in B, or
- (d) A has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence or control over B.
- (4) In the application of this paragraph to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors, a person (“A”) is to be treated as having the right to appoint a director if—
- (a) any person's appointment as director follows necessarily from that person's appointment as director of A, or
- (b) the directorship is held by A itself.
Shares held by nominees
10
A share held by a person as nominee for another is to be treated as held by the other (and not by the nominee).
Rights treated as held by person who controls their exercise
11
- (1) Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated as held by that person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that person also controls it).
- (2) A person “controls” a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that person and others, the right is exercisable only—
- (a) by that person,
- (b) in accordance with that person's directions or instructions, or
- (c) with that person's consent or concurrence.
12
“Arrangement” includes—
- (a) any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally enforceable, and
- (b) any convention, custom or practice of any kind.
Rights exercisable only in certain circumstances etc
13
- (1) Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken into account only—
- (a) when the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they continue to obtain, or
- (b) when the circumstances are within the control of the person having the rights.
- (2) But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a person is subject to relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account while the person is subject to those proceedings.
- (3) “Relevant insolvency proceedings” means—
- (a) administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986
- (b) administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 , or
- (c) proceedings under the insolvency law of another country during which a person's assets and affairs are subject to the control or supervision of a third party or creditor.
- (4) Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise are to continue to be taken into account.
Rights attached to shares held by way of security
14
Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person are to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person—
- (a) where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in accordance with that person's instructions, and
- (b) where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person's interests.
SCHEDULE 2 — List of internal repression goods and internal repression technology
Firearms and related goods
1
Firearms, ammunition and related accessories, as follows—
- (a) firearms;
- (b) ammunition specially designed for firearms;
- (c) weapon-sights.
2
Simulators for training persons to use firearms.
3
Bombs and grenades.
Vehicles
4
- (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), the following types of vehicles—
- (a) vehicles equipped with a water cannon, specially designed or modified for the purpose of riot control;
- (b) vehicles specially designed or modified to be electrified to repel boarders;
- (c) vehicles specially designed or modified to remove barricades, including construction equipment with ballistic protection;
- (d) vehicles specially designed for the transport or transfer of prisoners or detainees;
- (e) vehicles specially designed to deploy mobile barriers;
- (2) Components for the vehicles specified in sub-paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) that have been designed for the purposes of riot control.
- (3) Vehicles that might otherwise fall within sub-paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) are not internal repression goods if they are specially designed for the purposes of fire-fighting.
- (4) For the purposes of this paragraph, “vehicle” includes a trailer.
Explosive substances and related goods
5
- (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), equipment and devices specially designed to initiate explosions by electrical or non-electrical means, including—
- (a) firing sets;
- (b) detonators;
- (c) igniters;
- (d) boosters;
- (e) detonating cord.
- (2) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), components that have been specially designed for any thing mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
- (3) Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to any thing that has been specially designed for a specific commercial use.
- (4) For the purpose of paragraph (3), a “specific commercial use” means the actuation or operation by explosive means of other equipment or devices the function of which is not the creation of explosions, including—
- (a) car air-bag inflaters;
- (b) electric-surge arresters; and
- (c) fire sprinkler actuators.
6
Linear cutting explosive charges.
7
The following explosives and related substances—
- (a) amatol;
- (b) nitrocellulose (containing more than 12.5 % nitrogen);
- (c) nitroglycol;
- (d) pentaerythritol tetranitrate (PETN);
- (e) picryl chloride;
- (f) 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (TNT).
Other goods
8
- (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), the following equipment designed for the protection of a person—
- (a) body armour providing ballistic or stabbing protection or both;
- (b) helmets providing ballistic or fragmentation protection, or both, including anti-riot helmets;
- (c) anti-riot shields and ballistic shields.
- (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply to—
- (a) any thing specially designed to protect persons for the following purposes—
- (i) participation in competitive sport;
- (ii) ensuring safety at work;
- (b) any thing mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(a) or (b) when accompanying a person for that person's own protection.
9
Night vision equipment.
10
Thermal imaging equipment.
11
Image intensifier tubes.
12
Razor barbed wire.
13
The following types of knives—
- (a) knives that are designed for use by military personnel (military knives);
- (b) knives that are designed for use as a weapon for inflicting injury (combat knives);
- (c) bayonets with blade lengths in excess of 10 cm.
Production equipment
14
Any equipment which is specially designed or modified for the development or for one or more of the production phases of any item mentioned in this Schedule.
Software and technology
15
Any software which is specially designed for the simulators mentioned in paragraph 2.
16
Any technology which is specially designed for the development, production or use of any item mentioned in this Schedule.
Interpretation
17
- (1) In this Schedule, “firearm” means any portable barrelled weapon that expels, is designed to expel or may be converted to expel, a shot, bullet or projectile by the action of a combustible propellant.
- (2) For the purposes of this Schedule, the following terms have the meaning given to them in the Dual-Use Regulation—
- “development”;
- “production”;
- “software”;
- “technology”;
- “use”.
SCHEDULE 3 — Treasury licences: purposes
Interpretation
1
- (1) In this Part—
- ...
- “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
- ...
- “frozen account” has the meaning given in regulation 30(7);
- “frozen funds or economic resources” means funds or economic resources frozen by virtue of regulation 11, and any reference to a person's frozen funds or economic resources is to funds or economic resources frozen as a consequence of the designation of that person for the purpose of that regulation.
- (2) For the purposes of this Schedule, references to a designated person are to be read as including a person (“C”) who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (“P”).
- (3) When determining for the purposes of paragraph 9 when C became a designated person, C is to be treated as having become a designated person at the same time as P.
Basic needs
2
- (1) To enable the basic needs of a designated person, or (in the case of an individual) any dependent family member of such a person, to be met.
- (2) In the case of an individual in sub-paragraph (1), “basic needs” includes—
- (a) medical needs;
- (b) needs for—
- (i) food;
- (ii) payment of insurance premiums;
- (iii) payment of tax;
- (iv) rent or mortgage payments;
- (v) utility payments.
- (3) In the case of a person other than an individual in sub-paragraph (1), “basic needs” includes needs for—
- (a) payment of insurance premiums;
- (b) payment of reasonable fees for the provision of property management services;
- (c) payment of remuneration, allowances or pensions of employees;
- (d) payment of tax;
- (e) rent or mortgage payments;
- (f) utility payments.
- (4) In sub-paragraph (1)—
- “dependent” means financially dependent;
- “family member” includes—the wife or husband of the designated person;the civil partner of the designated person;any parent or other ascendant of the designated person;any child or other descendant of the designated person;any person who is a brother or sister of the designated person, or a child or other descendant of such a person.
Legal services
3
To enable the payment of—
- (a) reasonable professional fees for the provision of legal services, or
- (b) reasonable expenses associated with the provision of legal services.
Maintenance of frozen funds and economic resources
4
To enable the payment of—
- (a) reasonable fees, or
- (b) reasonable service charges,
arising from the routine holding or maintenance of frozen funds or economic resources.
Extraordinary expenses
5
To enable an extraordinary expense of a designated person to be met.
Pre-existing judicial decisions etc
6
To enable the implementation or satisfaction (in whole or in part) of a judicial, administrative or arbitral decision or lien which is enforceable in the United Kingdom (the “judicial decision”), provided that—
- (a) where funds or economic resources are made available to a designated person, they are credited to a frozen account or otherwise frozen by virtue of regulation 11;
- (b) where funds or economic resources are made available by a person (including a designated person) to a designated person to enable the implementation or satisfaction of the judicial decision, no other designated person benefits, directly or indirectly.
Diplomatic missions
7
- (1) To enable anything to be done in order that the functions of a diplomatic mission or consular post in Belarus or of an international organisation enjoying immunities in accordance with international law may be carried out.
- (2) To enable anything to be done in order that the functions of a diplomatic mission or consular post of Belarus in the United Kingdom may be carried out.
Extraordinary situation
8
To enable anything to be done to deal with an extraordinary situation.
Prior obligations
9
To enable, by the use of a designated person's frozen funds or economic resources, the satisfaction of an obligation of that person (whether arising under a contract, other agreement or otherwise), provided that—
- (a) the obligation arose before the date on which the person became a designated person, and
- (b) no payments are made to another designated person, whether directly or indirectly.
Signed
Alan Duncan — Minister of State — 2019-03-18
Explanatory note
(This note is not part of the Regulations)
Footnotes
[^f00001]: The power to make regulations under Part 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 is conferred on an “appropriate Minister”. Section 1(9)(a) of the Act defines an “appropriate Minister” as including the Secretary of State.
[^f00002]: 2018 c.13.
[^f00003]: 1979 c.2. Amendments have been made to this Act and are cited, where relevant, in respect of the applicable regulations.
[^f00004]: OJ L 134 20.5.2006, p.1.
[^f00005]: “Person” is defined by section 9(5) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 to include (in addition to an individual and a body of persons corporate or unincorporate) any organisation and any association or combination of persons.
[^f00006]: 1971 c. 77. Section 8B was inserted by the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c.33), section 8 and amended by the Immigration Act 2016 (c.19), section 76; and the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act (c.13), section 59 and Schedule 3, Part 1.
[^f00007]: S.I. 2008/3231. Schedule 2 was substituted by S.I. 2017/85 and subsequently amended by S.I. 2017/697; S.I. 2018/165; and S.I. 2018/939. There are other instruments which amend other parts of the Order, which are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00008]: 2000 c.8. Section 142D was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c.33), section 4(1).
[^f00009]: Section 142A was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c.33), section 4(1).
[^f00010]: Part 4A was inserted by the Financial Services Act 2012 (c.21), section 11(2) and amended by S.I. 2018/135.
[^f00011]: Section 22 was amended by the Financial Guidance and Claims Act 2018 (c.10), section 27(4); the Financial Services Act 2012, section 7(1); and S.I. 2018/135.
[^f00012]: S.I. 2001/544 as most recently amended by S.I. 2018/1288 and prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/1403.
[^f00013]: Schedule 2 was amended by the Regulation of Financial Services (Land Transactions) Act 2005 (c.24), section 1; the Dormant Bank and Building Society Accounts Act 2008 (c.31), section 15 and Schedule 2, paragraph 1; the Financial Services Act 2012, sections 7(2) to (5) and 8; and S.I. 2013/1881; and it is prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/135.
[^f00014]: 2006 c.46.
[^f00015]: 2014 c.2.
[^f00016]: 2005 c.19.
[^f00017]: 1979 c.38. Section 1 was amended by the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1985 (c.73), Schedule 1, paragraph 40; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) Act 1990 (c.11), Schedule 2, paragraph 42; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1997 (c.11), Schedule 2, paragraph 28; the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c.24), section 70; S.I. 1991/2684; S.I. 2000/121; and S.I. 2001/1283.
[^f00018]: Section 1210 was amended by S.I. 2008/565; S.I. 2008/567; S.I. 2008/1950; S.I. 2011/99; S.I. 2012/1809; S.I. 2013/3115; S.I. 2017/516; and S.I. 2017/1164.
[^f00019]: Section 77A was inserted by the Finance Act 1987 (c.16), section 10 and amended by S.I. 1992/3095.
[^f00020]: S.I. 1991/2724 is amended by S.I. 1992/3095; S.I. 1993/3014; and S.I. 2011/1043 and is prospectively revoked by S.I. 2018/1247.
[^f00021]: 2017 c.3.
[^f00022]: Section 1(8) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 defines an “international obligation” as an obligation of the United Kingdom created or arising by or under any international agreement.
[^f00023]: 2016 c.25. Amendments have been made by the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), Schedule 9, paragraph 74; the Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), Schedule 19, paragraphs 198-203; S.I. 2018/652 and S.I. 2018/1123. Saving provisions are made by S.I. 2017/859.
[^f00024]: 2018 c.12. There are amendments to this Act that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00025]: 2003 c.44. Amendments have been made to section 154(1), but none are relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00026]: 1995 c.46.
[^f00027]: 1925 c.86. Amendments have been made to section 33 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00028]: 1980 c.43. Amendments have been made to Schedule 3 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00029]: 1945 c.15 (N.I.).
[^f00030]: S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26).
[^f00031]: The definition of “assigned matter” in section 1(1) of CEMA was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c.11), Schedule 4, paragraph 22(a); the Scotland Act 2012 (c. 11), section 24(7); and the Wales Act 2014 (c.29), section 7(1).
[^f00032]: Section 138 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60), section 114(1), Schedule 6, paragraph 37, and Schedule 7, Part 1; the Finance Act 1988 (c. 39), section 11; the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), Schedule 7, paragraph 54; S.I. 1989/1341; and S.I. 2007/288.
[^f00033]: “The customs and excise Acts” is defined in section 1 of CEMA.
[^f00034]: Section 145 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, section 114(1); the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 23(a); and S.I. 2014/834. Section 147 was amended by the Criminal Justice Act 1982 (c. 48), Schedule 14, paragraph 42; the Finance Act 1989, section 16(2); and the Criminal Justice Act 2003, Schedule 3, paragraph 50. Section 152 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 26, and Schedule 5. Section 155 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 27, and Schedule 5.
[^f00035]: The words “7 years” were inserted in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
[^f00036]: The words “7 years” were inserted in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
[^f00037]: 2005 c.15. Chapter 1 of Part 2 has been amended by the Terrorism Act 2006 (c.11), section 33(3) and (4); the Northern Ireland (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2006 (c.33), sections 26(2) and 30(2) and Schedules 3 and 5; the Bribery Act 2010 (c.23), section 17(2) and Schedule 1; the Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 (asp.13), section 203 and Schedule 7, paragraph 77; the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (c.22), section 17(4) and Schedule 8, paragraphs 157 and 159; the Criminal Finances Act 2017 (c.22), section 51(1); the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c.13), section 59(4) and Schedule 3, paragraph 4; and S.I. 2014/834.
[^f00038]: See section 143(4)(f) and (4A), as inserted by the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c.13), section 59(4) and Schedule 3, paragraph 8(1) and (3).
[^f00039]: 1987 c.4. Section 1 was amended by the Police Act 1996 (c.16), Schedule 7, paragraph 41; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 1998 (c.32), Schedule 4, paragraph 16; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 2000 (c.32), section 78(2); the Police Reform Act 2002 (c.30), section 79(3); and S.I. 2013/602.
[^f00040]: 2012 asp.8.
[^f00041]: 1996 c.16. Section 27 was amended by the Police and Justice Act 2006 (c.48), Schedule 2, paragraph 23; the Policing and Crime Act 2009 (c.26), Schedule 7, paragraphs 1 and 6; and the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011 (c.13), Schedule 16, paragraphs 22 and 26.
[^f00042]: 1847 c.27.
[^f00043]: 2013 c.23.
[^f00044]: 1964 c.40. Section 16 has been amended by various instruments but none are relevant to these Regulations.
[^f00045]: 2009 c.11. Designated customs officials are designated, as either a general customs official or a customs revenue official, under sections 3 and 11 of this Act respectively.
[^f00046]: Cmnd 8941.
[^f00047]: S.I. 2013/164, as amended by s.4(4)(a) of the Wales Act 2014 (c.29); S.I. 2013/472; S.I. 2013/534; S.I. 2015/1850; S.I. 2016/504; S.I. 2017/560; S.I. 2017/754; S.I. 2018/682; and S.I. 2018/1149.
[^f00048]: S.I. 2011/2010, as amended by S.I. 2011/2925; and S.I. 2012/810.
[^f00049]: 1986 c.45.
[^f00050]: S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I. 19).
[^f00051]: United Nations Treaty Series, vol. 596, p.261.
[^f00052]: United Nations Treaty Series, vol. 500, p. 95.
Editorial notes
[^c23946931]: The power to make regulations under Part 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 is conferred on an “appropriate Minister”. Section 1(9)(a) of the Act defines an “appropriate Minister” as including the Secretary of State.
[^c23946941]: 2018 c.13.
[^c23946951]: 1979 c.2. Amendments have been made to this Act and are cited, where relevant, in respect of the applicable regulations.
[^c23946961]: OJ L 134 20.5.2006, p.1.
[^c23946971]: “Person” is defined by section 9(5) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 to include (in addition to an individual and a body of persons corporate or unincorporate) any organisation and any association or combination of persons.
[^c23946981]: 1971 c. 77. Section 8B was inserted by the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c.33), section 8 and amended by the Immigration Act 2016 (c.19), section 76; and the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act (c.13), section 59 and Schedule 3, Part 1.
[^c23947001]: 2000 c.8. Section 142D was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c.33), section 4(1).
[^c23947011]: Section 142A was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c.33), section 4(1).
[^c23947021]: Part 4A was inserted by the Financial Services Act 2012 (c.21), section 11(2) and amended by S.I. 2018/135.
[^c23947031]: Section 22 was amended by the Financial Guidance and Claims Act 2018 (c.10), section 27(4); the Financial Services Act 2012, section 7(1); and S.I. 2018/135.
[^c23947041]: S.I. 2001/544 as most recently amended by S.I. 2018/1288 and prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/1403.
[^c23947051]: Schedule 2 was amended by the Regulation of Financial Services (Land Transactions) Act 2005 (c.24), section 1; the Dormant Bank and Building Society Accounts Act 2008 (c.31), section 15 and Schedule 2, paragraph 1; the Financial Services Act 2012, sections 7(2) to (5) and 8; and S.I. 2013/1881; and it is prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/135.
[^c23947061]: 2006 c.46.
[^c23947071]: 2014 c.2.
[^c23947081]: 2005 c.19.
[^c23947091]: 1979 c. 38. s. 1 was amended by the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1985 (c.73), Sch. 1 para. 40; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) Act 1990 (c.11), Sch. 2, para. 42; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1997 (c.11), Sch. 2 para. 28; the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c.24), s. 70; S.I. 1991/2684; S.I. 2000/121; and S.I. 2001/1283
[^c23947101]: Section 1210 was amended by S.I. 2008/565; S.I. 2008/567; S.I. 2008/1950; S.I. 2011/99; S.I. 2012/1809; S.I. 2013/3115; S.I. 2017/516; and S.I. 2017/1164.
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